Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001
2001 CHAPTER 24
An Act to amend the Terrorism Act 2000; to make further
provision about terrorism and security; to provide for the freezing of assets;
to make provision about immigration and asylum; to amend or extend the criminal
law and powers for preventing crime and enforcing that law; to make provision
about the control of pathogens and toxins; to provide for the retention of
communications data; to provide for implementation of Title VI of the Treaty on European Union; and for connected
purposes.
[14th December 2001]
Be it enacted by the Queen’s most Excellent Majesty, by and
with the advice and consent of the Lords Spiritual and Temporal, and Commons, in
this present Parliament assembled, and by the authority of the same, as
follows:—
Part
1 Terrorist
Property
1 Forfeiture of terrorist cash
(1) Schedule 1 (which makes provision for enabling
cash which—
(a) is
intended to be used for the purposes of terrorism,
(b) consists of resources of an organisation which is
a proscribed organisation, or
(c) is,
or represents, property obtained through terrorism,
to be forfeited in civil proceedings before a
magistrates' court or (in Scotland) the sheriff) is to have effect.
(2) The
powers conferred by Schedule 1 are exercisable in relation to any cash whether
or not any proceedings have been brought for an offence in connection with the
cash.
(3) Expressions used in this section have the same
meaning as in Schedule 1.
(4) Sections 24 to 31 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)
(seizure of terrorist cash) are to cease to have effect.
(5) An
order under section 127 bringing Schedule 1 into force may make any
modifications of any code of practice then in operation under Schedule 14 to the
Terrorism Act 2000 (exercise of officers' powers) which the Secretary of State
thinks necessary or expedient.
2 Amendments
relating to section 1
(1) In
Schedule 2 to the Access to Justice Act 1999 (c. 22)
(services excluded from the Community Legal Service), paragraph 2 (exclusion of
advocacy: exceptions) is amended as follows.
(2) In
paragraph 2(2) (Crown Court), after paragraph (c) insert— “or
(d) which relate to an order under paragraph 6
of Schedule 1 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001”,
and omit the “or” at the end of paragraph (b).
(3) In
paragraph 2(3) (magistrates' courts), in paragraph (j), after “1998” insert—
“or
(k) for an order or direction under paragraph
3, 5, 6, 9 or 10 of Schedule 1 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act
2001”,
and omit the “or” at the end of paragraph (i).
(4) Schedule 14 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (exercise
of officers' powers) is amended as follows.
(5) In
paragraph 1—
(a) in
paragraph (a), for “section 24” substitute “the terrorist cash provisions”,
and
(b) after paragraph (b) insert—
“and “the terrorist
cash provisions” means Schedule 1 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act
2001”.
(6) In
paragraphs 2, 3 and 6(1), at the end insert “or the terrorist cash
provisions”.
(7) In
paragraph 5, after “Act” insert “or the terrorist cash provisions”.
(8) In
Part I of Schedule 1 to the Legal Aid, Advice and Assistance (Northern Ireland)
Order 1981 (S.I.1981/228 (N.I.8)) (proceedings for which legal aid may be given
under Part II of the Order), in paragraph 3 (courts of summary jurisdiction)
after sub-paragraph (h) insert—
“(i)
proceedings under paragraphs 3, 5,
6, 9 and 10 of Schedule 1 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act
2001”.
3 Terrorist
property: amendments
Schedule 2 contains amendments to
the Terrorism Act 2000.
Part 2
Freezing Orders
Orders
4 Power to
make order
(1) The
Treasury may make a freezing order if the following two conditions are
satisfied.
(2) The
first condition is that the Treasury reasonably believe that—
(a) action to the detriment of the United Kingdom’s
economy (or part of it) has been or is likely to be taken by a person or
persons, or
(b) action constituting a threat to the life or
property of one or more nationals of the United Kingdom or residents of the
United Kingdom has been or is likely to be taken by a person or persons.
(3) If
one person is believed to have taken or to be likely to take the action the
second condition is that the person is—
(a) the
government of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, or
(b) a
resident of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom.
(4) If
two or more persons are believed to have taken or to be likely to take the
action the second condition is that each of them falls within paragraph (a) or
(b) of subsection (3); and different persons may fall within different
paragraphs.
5 Contents of
order
(1) A
freezing order is an order which prohibits persons from making funds available
to or for the benefit of a person or persons specified in the order.
(2) The
order must provide that these are the persons who are prohibited—
(a) all
persons in the United Kingdom, and
(b) all
persons elsewhere who are nationals of the United Kingdom or are bodies
incorporated under the law of any part of the United Kingdom or are Scottish
partnerships.
(3) The
order may specify the following (and only the following) as the person or
persons to whom or for whose benefit funds are not to be made available—
(a) the
person or persons reasonably believed by the Treasury to have taken or to be
likely to take the action referred to in section 4;
(b) any
person the Treasury reasonably believe has provided or is likely to provide
assistance (directly or indirectly) to that person or any of those
persons.
(4) A
person may be specified under subsection (3) by—
(a) being named in the order, or
(b) falling within a description of persons set out
in the order.
(5) The
description must be such that a reasonable person would know whether he fell
within it.
(6) Funds are financial assets and economic benefits
of any kind.
6 Contents:
further provisions
Schedule 3 contains further
provisions about the contents of freezing orders.
7 Review of
order
The Treasury must keep a
freezing order under review.
8 Duration of
order
A freezing order ceases to have
effect at the end of the period of 2 years starting with the day on which it is
made.
Interpretation
9 Nationals and residents
(1) A
national of the United Kingdom is an individual who is—
(a) a
British citizen, a British Dependent Territories citizen, a British National
(Overseas) or a British Overseas citizen,
(b) a
person who under the British Nationality Act 1981 (c. 61) is a British subject,
or
(c) a
British protected person within the meaning of that Act.
(2) A
resident of the United Kingdom is—
(a) an
individual who is ordinarily resident in the United Kingdom,
(b) a
body incorporated under the law of any part of the United Kingdom, or
(c) a
Scottish partnership.
(3) A
resident of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom is—
(a) an
individual who is ordinarily resident in such a country or territory, or
(b) a
body incorporated under the law of such a country or territory.
(4) For
the purposes of subsection (3)(b) a branch situated in a country or territory
outside the United Kingdom of—
(a) a
body incorporated under the law of any part of the United Kingdom, or
(b) a
Scottish partnership,
is to be treated as a body incorporated under the
law of the country or territory where the branch is situated.
(5) This section applies for the purposes of this
Part.
Orders:
procedure etc.
10 Procedure for making freezing orders
(1) A
power to make a freezing order is exercisable by statutory instrument.
(2) A
freezing order—
(a) must be laid before Parliament after being
made;
(b) ceases to have effect at the end of the relevant
period unless before the end of that period the order is approved by a
resolution of each House of Parliament (but without that affecting anything done
under the order or the power to make a new order).
(3) The
relevant period is a period of 28 days starting with the day on which the order
is made.
(4) In
calculating the relevant period no account is to be taken of any time during
which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or during which both Houses are
adjourned for more than 4 days.
(5) If
the Treasury propose to make a freezing order in the belief that the condition
in section 4(2)(b) is satisfied, they must not make the order unless they
consult the Secretary of State.
11 Procedure
for making certain amending orders
(1) This section applies if—
(a) a
freezing order is made specifying by description (rather than by name) the
person or persons to whom or for whose benefit funds are not to be made
available,
(b) it
is proposed to make a further order which amends the freezing order only so as
to make it specify by name the person or persons (or any of the persons) to whom
or for whose benefit funds are not to be made available, and
(c) the
Treasury reasonably believe that the person or persons named fall within the
description contained in the freezing order and the further order contains a
statement of the Treasury’s belief.
(2) This section also applies if—
(a) a
freezing order is made specifying by name the person or persons to whom or for
whose benefit funds are not to be made available,
(b) it
is proposed to make a further order which amends the freezing order only so as
to make it specify by name a further person or further persons to whom or for
whose benefit funds are not to be made available, and
(c) the
Treasury reasonably believe that the further person or persons fall within the
same description as the person or persons specified in the freezing order and
the further order contains a statement of the Treasury’s belief.
(3) This section also applies if—
(a) a
freezing order is made, and
(b) it
is proposed to make a further order which amends the freezing order only so as
to make it specify (whether by name or description) fewer persons to whom or for
whose benefit funds are not to be made available.
(4) If
this section applies, a statutory instrument containing the further order is
subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of
Parliament.
12 Procedure
for revoking orders
A statutory instrument
containing an order revoking a freezing order (without re-enacting it) is
subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of
Parliament.
13 De-hybridisation
If apart from this section an
order under this Part would be treated for the purposes of the standing orders
of either House of Parliament as a hybrid instrument, it is to proceed in that
House as if it were not such an instrument.
14 Orders:
supplementary
(1) Where this Part confers a power to make
provision, different provision may be made for different purposes.
(2) An
order under this Part may include supplementary, incidental, saving or
transitional provisions.
(3) Nothing in this Part affects the generality of
subsection (2).
Miscellaneous
15 The
Crown
(1) A
freezing order binds the Crown, subject to the following provisions of this
section.
(2) No
contravention by the Crown of a provision of a freezing order makes the Crown
criminally liable; but the High Court or in Scotland the Court of Session may,
on the application of a person appearing to the Court to have an interest,
declare unlawful any act or omission of the Crown which constitutes such a
contravention.
(3) Nothing in this section affects Her Majesty in
her private capacity; and this is to be construed as if section 38(3) of the
Crown Proceedings Act 1947 (c. 44) (meaning of Her Majesty in her private
capacity) were contained in this Act.
16 Repeals
(1) These provisions shall cease to have
effect—
(a) section 2 of the Emergency Laws (Re-enactments
and Repeals) Act 1964 (c. 60) (Treasury’s power to prohibit action on certain
orders as to gold etc);
(b) section 55 of the Finance Act 1968 (c. 44)
(meaning of security in section 2 of 1964 Act).
(2) Subsection (1) does not affect a reference
which—
(a) is
to a provision referred to in that subsection, and
(b) is
contained in a provision made under an Act.
Part 3
Disclosure of Information
17 Extension of existing disclosure
powers
(1) This section applies to the provisions listed in
Schedule 4, so far as they authorise the disclosure of information.
(2) Each of the provisions to which this section
applies shall have effect, in relation to the disclosure of information by or on
behalf of a public authority, as if the purposes for which the disclosure of
information is authorised by that provision included each of the
following—
(a) the
purposes of any criminal investigation whatever which is being or may be carried
out, whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere;
(b) the
purposes of any criminal proceedings whatever which have been or may be
initiated, whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere;
(c) the
purposes of the initiation or bringing to an end of any such investigation or
proceedings;
(d) the
purpose of facilitating a determination of whether any such investigation or
proceedings should be initiated or brought to an end.
(3) The
Treasury may by order made by statutory instrument add any provision contained
in any subordinate legislation to the provisions to which this section
applies.
(4) The
Treasury shall not make an order under subsection (3) unless a draft of it has
been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House.
(5) No
disclosure of information shall be made by virtue of this section unless the
public authority by which the disclosure is made is satisfied that the making of
the disclosure is proportionate to what is sought to be achieved by it.
(6) Nothing in this section shall be taken to
prejudice any power to disclose information which exists apart from this
section.
(7) The
information that may be disclosed by virtue of this section includes information
obtained before the commencement of this section.
18 Restriction
on disclosure of information for overseas purposes
(1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), the Secretary
of State may give a direction which—
(a) specifies any overseas proceedings or any
description of overseas proceedings; and
(b) prohibits the making of any relevant disclosure
for the purposes of those proceedings or, as the case may be, of proceedings of
that description.
(2) In
subsection (1) the reference, in relation to a direction, to a relevant
disclosure is a reference to a disclosure authorised by any of the provisions to
which section 17 applies which—
(a) is
made for a purpose mentioned in subsection (2)(a) to (d) of that section;
and
(b) is
a disclosure of any such information as is described in the direction.
(3) The
Secretary of State shall not give a direction under this section unless it
appears to him that the overseas proceedings in question, or that overseas
proceedings of the description in question, relate or would relate—
(a) to
a matter in respect of which it would be more appropriate for any jurisdiction
or investigation to be exercised or carried out by a court or other authority of
the United Kingdom, or of a particular part of the United Kingdom;
(b) to
a matter in respect of which it would be more appropriate for any jurisdiction
or investigation to be exercised or carried out by a court or other authority of
a third country; or
(c) to
a matter that would fall within paragraph (a) or (b)—
(i) if
it were appropriate for there to be any exercise of jurisdiction or
investigation at all; and
(ii) if
(where one does not exist) a court or other authority with the necessary
jurisdiction or functions existed in the United Kingdom, in the part of the
United Kingdom in question or, as the case may be, in the third country in
question.
(4) A
direction under this section shall not have the effect of prohibiting—
(a) the
making of any disclosure by a Minister of the Crown or by the Treasury;
or
(b) the
making of any disclosure in pursuance of a Community obligation.
(5) A
direction under this section—
(a) may
prohibit the making of disclosures absolutely or in such cases, or subject to
such conditions as to consent or otherwise, as may be specified in it;
and
(b) must be published or otherwise issued by the
Secretary of State in such manner as he considers appropriate for bringing it to
the attention of persons likely to be affected by it.
(6) A
person who, knowing of any direction under this section, discloses any
information in contravention of that direction shall be guilty of an offence and
liable—
(a) on
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or
to a fine or to both;
(b) on
summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or to
a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or to both.
(7) The
following are overseas proceedings for the purposes of this section—
(a) criminal proceedings which are taking place, or
will or may take place, in a country or territory outside the United
Kingdom;
(b) a
criminal investigation which is being, or will or may be, conducted by an
authority of any such country or territory.
(8) References in this section, in relation to any
proceedings or investigation, to a third country are references to any country
or territory outside the United Kingdom which is not the country or territory
where the proceedings are taking place, or will or may take place or, as the
case may be, is not the country or territory of the authority which is
conducting the investigation, or which will or may conduct it.
(9) In
this section “court” includes a tribunal of any description.
19 Disclosure
of information held by revenue departments
(1) This section applies to information which is held
by or on behalf of the Commissioners of Inland Revenue or by or on behalf of the
Commissioners of Customs and Excise, including information obtained before the
coming into force of this section.
(2) No
obligation of secrecy imposed by statute or otherwise prevents the disclosure,
in accordance with the following provisions of this section, of information to
which this section applies if the disclosure is made—
(a) for
the purpose of facilitating the carrying out by any of the intelligence services
of any of that service’s functions;
(b) for
the purposes of any criminal investigation whatever which is being or may be
carried out, whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere;
(c) for
the purposes of any criminal proceedings whatever which have been or may be
initiated, whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere;
(d) for
the purposes of the initiation or bringing to an end of any such investigation
or proceedings; or
(e) for
the purpose of facilitating a determination of whether any such investigation or
proceedings should be initiated or brought to an end.
(3) No
disclosure of information to which this section applies shall be made by virtue
of this section unless the person by whom the disclosure is made is satisfied
that the making of the disclosure is proportionate to what is sought to be
achieved by it.
(4) Information to which this section applies shall
not be disclosed by virtue of this section except by the Commissioners by or on
whose behalf it is held or with their authority.
(5) Information obtained by means of a disclosure
authorised by subsection (2) shall not be further disclosed except—
(a) for
a purpose mentioned in that subsection; and
(b) with the consent of the Commissioners by whom or
with whose authority it was initially disclosed;
and information so obtained otherwise than by or on
behalf of any of the intelligence services shall not be further disclosed (with
or without such consent) to any of those services, or to any person acting on
behalf of any of those services, except for a purpose mentioned in paragraphs
(b) to (e) of that subsection.
(6) A
consent for the purposes of subsection (5) may be given either in relation to a
particular disclosure or in relation to disclosures made in such circumstances
as may be specified or described in the consent.
(7) Nothing in this section authorises the making of
any disclosure which is prohibited by any provision of the Data Protection Act
1998 (c.
29).
(8) References in this section to information which
is held on behalf of the Commissioners of Inland Revenue or of the Commissioners
of Customs and Excise include references to information which—
(a) is
held by a person who provides services to the Commissioners of Inland Revenue
or, as the case may be, to the Commissioners of Customs and Excise; and
(b) is
held by that person in connection with the provision of those services.
(9) In
this section “intelligence service” has the same meaning as in the Regulation of
Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23).
(10) Nothing in this section shall be taken to
prejudice any power to disclose information which exists apart from this
section.
20 Interpretation of Part 3
(1) In
this Part—
-
“criminal investigation” means an
investigation of any criminal conduct, including an investigation of alleged or
suspected criminal conduct and an investigation of whether criminal conduct has
taken place;
-
“information” includes—
(a)
documents; and
(b)
in relation to a disclosure authorised
by a provision to which section 17 applies, anything that falls to be treated as
information for the purposes of that provision;
-
“public authority” has the same meaning
as in section 6 of the Human Rights Act 1998 (c. 42);
and
-
“subordinate legislation” has the same
meaning as in the Interpretation Act 1978 (c. 30).
(2) Proceedings outside the United Kingdom shall not
be taken to be criminal proceedings for the purposes of this Part unless the
conduct with which the defendant in those proceedings is charged is criminal
conduct or conduct which, to a substantial extent, consists of criminal
conduct.
(3) In
this section—
Part 4
Immigration and Asylum
Suspected international terrorists
21 Suspected international terrorist:
certification
(1) The
Secretary of State may issue a certificate under this section in respect of a
person if the Secretary of State reasonably—
(a) believes that the person’s presence in the United
Kingdom is a risk to national security, and
(b) suspects that the person is a terrorist.
(2) In
subsection (1)(b) “terrorist” means a person who—
(a) is
or has been concerned in the commission, preparation or instigation of acts of
international terrorism,
(b) is
a member of or belongs to an international terrorist group, or
(c) has
links with an international terrorist group.
(3) A
group is an international terrorist group for the purposes of subsection (2)(b)
and (c) if—
(a) it
is subject to the control or influence of persons outside the United Kingdom,
and
(b) the
Secretary of State suspects that it is concerned in the commission, preparation
or instigation of acts of international terrorism.
(4) For
the purposes of subsection (2)(c) a person has links with an international
terrorist group only if he supports or assists it.
(5) In
this Part—
-
“terrorism” has the meaning given by
section 1 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11), and
-
“suspected international terrorist”
means a person certified under subsection (1).
(6) Where the Secretary of State issues a certificate
under subsection (1) he shall as soon as is reasonably practicable—
(a) take reasonable steps to notify the person
certified, and
(b) send a copy of the certificate to the Special
Immigration Appeals Commission.
(7) The
Secretary of State may revoke a certificate issued under subsection (1).
(8) A
decision of the Secretary of State in connection with certification under this
section may be questioned in legal proceedings only under section 25 or
26.
(9) An
action of the Secretary of State taken wholly or partly in reliance on a
certificate under this section may be questioned in legal proceedings only by or
in the course of proceedings under—
(a) section 25 or 26, or
(b) secton 2 of the Special Immigration Appeals
Commission Act 1997
(c. 68) (appeal).
22 Deportation,
removal, &c.
(1) An
action of a kind specified in subsection (2) may be taken in respect of a
suspected international terrorist despite the fact that (whether temporarily or
indefinitely) the action cannot result in his removal from the United Kingdom
because of—
(a) a
point of law which wholly or partly relates to an international agreement,
or
(b) a
practical consideration.
(2) The
actions mentioned in subsection (1) are—
(a) refusing leave to enter or remain in the United
Kingdom in accordance with provision made by or by virtue of any of sections 3
to 3B of the Immigration Act 1971 (c. 77) (control of entry to United
Kingdom),
(b) varying a limited leave to enter or remain in the
United Kingdom in accordance with provision made by or by virtue of any of those
sections,
(c) recommending deportation in accordance with
section 3(6) of that Act (recommendation by court),
(d) taking a decision to make a deportation order
under section 5(1) of that Act (deportation by Secretary of State),
(e) making a deportation order under section 5(1) of
that Act,
(f) refusing to revoke a deportation order,
(g) cancelling leave to enter the United Kingdom in
accordance with paragraph 2A of Schedule 2 to that Act (person arriving with
continuous leave),
(h) giving directions for a person’s removal from the
United Kingdom under any of paragraphs 8 to 10 or 12 to 14 of Schedule 2 to that
Act (control of entry to United Kingdom),
(i) giving directions for a person’s removal from the
United Kingdom under section 10 of the Immigration and Asylum Act 1999 (c. 33)
(person unlawfully in United Kingdom), and
(j) giving notice to a person in accordance with
regulations under paragraph 1 of Schedule 4 to that Act of a decision to make a
deportation order against him.
(3) Action of a kind specified in subsection (2)
which has effect in respect of a suspected international terrorist at the time
of his certification under section 21 shall be treated as taken again (in
reliance on subsection (1) above) immediately after certification.
23 Detention
(1) A
suspected international terrorist may be detained under a provision specified in
subsection (2) despite the fact that his removal or departure from the United
Kingdom is prevented (whether temporarily or indefinitely) by—
(a) a
point of law which wholly or partly relates to an international agreement,
or
(b) a
practical consideration.
(2) The
provisions mentioned in subsection (1) are—
(a) paragraph 16 of Schedule 2 to the Immigration Act
1971 (c. 77) (detention of persons liable to examination or removal), and
(b) paragraph 2 of Schedule 3 to that Act (detention
pending deportation).
24 Bail
(1) A
suspected international terrorist who is detained under a provision of the
Immigration Act 1971 may be released on bail.
(2) For
the purpose of subsection (1) the following provisions of Schedule 2 to the
Immigration Act 1971 (control on entry) shall apply with the modifications
specified in Schedule 3 to the Special Immigration Appeals Commission Act 1997 (c. 68) (bail
to be determined by Special Immigration Appeals Commission) and with any other
necessary modifications—
(a) paragraph 22(1A), (2) and (3) (release),
(b) paragraph 23 (forfeiture),
(c) paragraph 24 (arrest), and
(d) paragraph 30(1) (requirement of Secretary of
State’s consent).
(3) Rules of procedure under the Special Immigration
Appeals Commission Act 1997 (c. 68)—
(a) may
make provision in relation to release on bail by virtue of this section,
and
(b) subject to provision made by virtue of paragraph
(a), shall apply in relation to release on bail by virtue of this section as
they apply in relation to release on bail by virtue of that Act subject to any
modification which the Commission considers necessary.
25 Certification: appeal
(1) A
suspected international terrorist may appeal to the Special Immigration Appeals
Commission against his certification under section 21.
(2) On
an appeal the Commission must cancel the certificate if—
(a) it
considers that there are no reasonable grounds for a belief or suspicion of the
kind referred to in section 21(1)(a) or (b), or
(b) it
considers that for some other reason the certificate should not have been
issued.
(3) If
the Commission determines not to cancel a certificate it must dismiss the
appeal.
(4) Where a certificate is cancelled under subsection
(2) it shall be treated as never having been issued.
(5) An
appeal against certification may be commenced only—
(a) within the period of three months beginning with
the date on which the certificate is issued, or
(b) with the leave of the Commission, after the end
of that period but before the commencement of the first review under section
26.
26 Certification: review
(1) The
Special Immigration Appeals Commission must hold a first review of each
certificate issued under section 21 as soon as is reasonably practicable after
the expiry of the period of six months beginning with the date on which the
certificate is issued.
(2) But—
(a) in
a case where before the first review would fall to be held in accordance with
subsection (1) an appeal under section 25 is commenced (whether or not it is
finally determined before that time) or leave to appeal is given under section
25(5)(b), the first review shall be held as soon as is reasonably practicable
after the expiry of the period of six months beginning with the date on which
the appeal is finally determined, and
(b) in
a case where an application for leave under section 25(5)(b) has been commenced
but not determined at the time when the first review would fall to be held in
accordance with subsection (1), if leave is granted the first review shall be
held as soon as is reasonably practicable after the expiry of the period of six
months beginning with the date on which the appeal is finally determined.
(3) The
Commission must review each certificate issued under section 21 as soon as is
reasonably practicable after the expiry of the period of three months beginning
with the date on which the first review or a review under this subsection is
finally determined.
(4) The
Commission may review a certificate during a period mentioned in subsection (1),
(2) or (3) if—
(a) the
person certified applies for a review, and
(b) the
Commission considers that a review should be held because of a change in
circumstance.
(5) On
a review the Commission—
(a) must cancel the certificate if it considers that
there are no reasonable grounds for a belief or suspicion of the kind referred
to in section 21(1)(a) or (b), and
(b) otherwise, may not make any order (save as to
leave to appeal).
(6) A
certificate cancelled by order of the Commission under subsection (5) ceases to
have effect at the end of the day on which the order is made.
(7) Where the Commission reviews a certificate under
subsection (4), the period for determining the next review of the certificate
under subsection (3) shall begin with the date of the final determination of the
review under subsection (4).
27 Appeal and
review: supplementary
(1) The
following provisions of the Special Immigration Appeals Commission Act 1997 (c. 68) shall
apply in relation to an appeal or review under section 25 or 26 as they apply in
relation to an appeal under section 2 of that Act—
(a) section 6 (person to represent appellant’s
interests),
(b) section 7 (further appeal on point of law),
and
(c) section 7A (pending appeal).
(2) The
reference in subsection (1) to an appeal or review does not include a reference
to a decision made or action taken on or in connection with—
(a) an
application under section 25(5)(b) or 26(4)(a) of this Act, or
(b) subsection (8) below.
(3) Subsection (4) applies where—
(a) a
further appeal is brought by virtue of subsection (1)(b) in connection with an
appeal or review, and
(b) the
Secretary of State notifies the Commission that in his opinion the further
appeal is confined to calling into question one or more derogation matters
within the meaning of section 30 of this Act.
(4) For
the purpose of the application of section 26(2) and (3) of this Act the
determination by the Commission of the appeal or review in connection with which
the further appeal is brought shall be treated as a final determination.
(5) Rules under section 5 or 8 of the Special
Immigration Appeals Commission Act 1997 (general procedure; and leave to appeal)
may make provision about an appeal, review or application under section 25 or 26
of this Act.
(6) Subject to any provision made by virtue of
subsection (5), rules under section 5 or 8 of that Act shall apply in relation
to an appeal, review or application under section 25 or 26 of this Act with any
modification which the Commission considers necessary.
(7) Subsection (8) applies where the Commission
considers that an appeal or review under section 25 or 26 which relates to a
person’s certification under section 21 is likely to raise an issue which is
also likely to be raised in other proceedings before the Commission which relate
to the same person.
(8) The
Commission shall so far as is reasonably practicable—
(a) deal with the two sets of proceedings together,
and
(b) avoid or minimise delay to either set of
proceedings as a result of compliance with paragraph (a).
(9) Cancellation by the Commission of a certificate
issued under section 21 shall not prevent the Secretary of State from issuing
another certificate, whether on the grounds of a change of circumstance or
otherwise.
(10) The reference in section 81 of the Immigration
and Asylum Act 1999
(c. 33) (grants to voluntary organisations) to persons who have rights of
appeal under that Act shall be treated as including a reference to suspected
international terrorists.
28 Review of
sections 21 to 23
(1) The
Secretary of State shall appoint a person to review the operation of sections 21
to 23.
(2) The
person appointed under subsection (1) shall review the operation of those
sections not later than—
(a) the
expiry of the period of 14 months beginning with the day on which this Act is
passed;
(b) one
month before the expiry of a period specified in accordance with section
29(2)(b) or (c).
(3) Where that person conducts a review under
subsection (2) he shall send a report to the Secretary of State as soon as is
reasonably practicable.
(4) Where the Secretary of State receives a report
under subsection (3) he shall lay a copy of it before Parliament as soon as is
reasonably practicable.
(5) The
Secretary of State may make payments to a person appointed under subsection
(1).
29 Duration of
sections 21 to 23
(1) Sections 21 to 23 shall, subject to the following
provisions of this section, expire at the end of the period of 15 months
beginning with the day on which this Act is passed.
(2) The
Secretary of State may by order—
(a) repeal sections 21 to 23;
(b) revive those sections for a period not exceeding
one year;
(c) provide that those sections shall not expire in
accordance with subsection (1) or an order under paragraph (b) or this
paragraph, but shall continue in force for a period not exceeding one
year.
(3) An
order under subsection (2)—
(a) must be made by statutory instrument, and
(b) may
not be made unless a draft has been laid before and approved by resolution of
each House of Parliament.
(4) An
order may be made without compliance with subsection (3)(b) if it contains a
declaration by the Secretary of State that by reason of urgency it is necessary
to make the order without laying a draft before Parliament; in which case the
order—
(a) must be laid before Parliament, and
(b) shall cease to have effect at the end of the
period specified in subsection (5) unless the order is approved during that
period by resolution of each House of Parliament.
(5) The
period referred to in subsection (4)(b) is the period of 40 days—
(a) beginning with the day on which the order is
made, and
(b) ignoring any period during which Parliament is
dissolved or prorogued or during which both Houses are adjourned for more than
four days.
(6) The
fact that an order ceases to have effect by virtue of subsection (4)—
(a) shall not affect the lawfulness of anything done
before the order ceases to have effect, and
(b) shall not prevent the making of a new
order.
(7) Sections 21 to 23 shall by virtue of this
subsection cease to have effect at the end of 10th November 2006.
30 Legal
proceedings: derogation
(1) In
this section “derogation matter” means—
(a) a
derogation by the United Kingdom from Article 5(1) of the Convention on Human
Rights which relates to the detention of a person where there is an intention to
remove or deport him from the United Kingdom, or
(b) the
designation under section 14(1) of the Human Rights Act 1998 (c. 42) of a
derogation within paragraph (a) above.
(2) A
derogation matter may be questioned in legal proceedings only before the Special
Immigration Appeals Commission; and the Commission—
(a) is
the appropriate tribunal for the purpose of section 7 of the Human Rights Act
1998 in relation to proceedings all or part of which call a derogation matter
into question; and
(b) may
hear proceedings which could, but for this subsection, be brought in the High
Court or the Court of Session.
(3) In
relation to proceedings brought by virtue of subsection (2)—
(a) section 6 of the Special Immigration Appeals
Commission Act 1997
(c. 68) (person to represent appellant’s interests) shall apply with the
reference to the appellant being treated as a reference to any party to the
proceedings,
(b) rules under section 5 or 8 of that Act (general
procedure; and leave to appeal) shall apply with any modification which the
Commission considers necessary, and
(c) in
the case of proceedings brought by virtue of subsection (2)(b), the Commission
may do anything which the High Court may do (in the case of proceedings which
could have been brought in that court) or which the Court of Session may do (in
the case of proceedings which could have been brought in that court).
(4) The
Commission’s power to award costs (or, in Scotland, expenses) by virtue of
subsection (3)(c) may be exercised only in relation to such part of proceedings
before it as calls a derogation matter into question.
(5) In
relation to proceedings brought by virtue of subsection (2)(a) or (b)—
(a) an
appeal may be brought to the appropriate appeal court (within the meaning of
section 7 of the Special Immigration Appeals Commission Act 1997 (c. 68)) with
the leave of the Commission or, if that leave is refused, with the leave of the
appropriate appeal court, and
(b) the
appropriate appeal court may consider and do only those things which it could
consider and do in an appeal brought from the High Court or the Court of Session
in proceedings for judicial review.
(6) In
relation to proceedings which are entertained by the Commission under subsection
(2) but are not brought by virtue of subsection (2)(a) or (b), subsection (4)
shall apply in so far as the proceedings call a derogation matter into
question.
(7) In
this section “the Convention on Human Rights” has the meaning given to “the
Convention” by section 21(1) of the Human Rights Act 1998 (c.
42).
31 Interpretation
A reference in section 22, 23
or 24 to a provision of the Immigration Act 1971 (c. 77) includes a reference to
that provision as applied by—
(a) another provision of that Act, or
(b) another Act.
32 Channel
Islands and Isle of Man
Her Majesty may by Order in
Council direct that sections 21 to 31 shall extend, with such modifications as
appear to Her Majesty to be appropriate, to any of the Channel Islands or the
Isle of Man.
Refugee
Convention
33 Certificate that Convention does not
apply
(1) This section applies to an asylum appeal before
the Special Immigration Appeals Commission where the Secretary of State issues a
certificate that—
(a) the
appellant is not entitled to the protection of Article 33(1) of the Refugee
Convention because Article 1(F) or 33(2) applies to him (whether or not he would
be entitled to protection if that Article did not apply), and
(b) the
removal of the appellant from the United Kingdom would be conducive to the
public good.
(2) In
this section—
-
“asylum appeal” means an appeal under
section 2 of the Special Immigration Appeals Commission Act 1997 (c. 68) in
which the appellant makes a claim for asylum (within the meaning given by
section 167(1) of the Immigration and Asylum Act 1999 (c. 33)),
and
-
“the Refugee Convention” has the
meaning given by that section.
(3) Where this section applies the Commission must
begin its substantive deliberations on the asylum appeal by considering the
statements in the Secretary of State’s certificate.
(4) If
the Commission agrees with those statements it must dismiss such part of the
asylum appeal as amounts to a claim for asylum (before considering any other
aspect of the case).
(5) If
the Commission does not agree with those statements it must quash the decision
or action against which the asylum appeal is brought.
(6) Where a decision or action is quashed under
subsection (5)—
(a) the
quashing shall not prejudice any later decision or action, whether taken on the
grounds of a change of circumstance or otherwise, and
(b) the
claim for asylum made in the course of the asylum appeal shall be treated for
the purposes of section 15 of the Immigration and Asylum Act 1999 (interim
protection from removal) as undecided until it has been determined whether to
take a new decision or action of the kind quashed.
(7) The
Secretary of State may revoke a certificate issued under subsection (1).
(8) No
court may entertain proceedings for questioning—
(a) a
decision or action of the Secretary of State in connection with certification
under subsection (1),
(b) a
decision of the Secretary of State in connection with a claim for asylum (within
the meaning given by section 167(1) of the Immigration and Asylum Act 1999) in a
case in respect of which he issues a certificate under subsection (1) above,
or
(c) a
decision or action of the Secretary of State taken as a consequence of the
dismissal of all or part of an asylum appeal in pursuance of subsection
(4).
(9) Subsection (8) shall not prevent an appeal under
section 7 of the Special Immigration Appeals Commission Act 1997 (appeal on
point of law).
(10) Her Majesty may by Order in Council direct that
this section shall extend, with such modifications as appear to Her Majesty to
be appropriate, to any of the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man.
34 Construction
(1) Articles 1(F) and 33(2) of the Refugee Convention
(exclusions: war criminals, national security, &c.) shall not be taken to
require consideration of the gravity of—
(a) events or fear by virtue of which Article 1(A)
would or might apply to a person if Article 1(F) did not apply, or
(b) a
threat by reason of which Article 33(1) would or might apply to a person if
Article 33(2) did not apply.
(2) In
this section “the Refugee Convention” means the Convention relating to the
Status of Refugees done at Geneva on 28th July 1951 and the Protocol to the
Convention.
Special
Immigration Appeals Commission
35 Status
of Commission
At the end of section 1 of the
Special Immigration Appeals Commission Act 1997 (c. 68)
insert—
“(3)
The Commission shall be a superior
court of record.
(4) A decision of the Commission shall be
questioned in legal proceedings only in accordance with—
(a) section 7, or
(b) section 30(5)(a) of the Anti-terrorism,
Crime and Security Act 2001 (derogation).”
Fingerprints
36 Destruction of fingerprints
(1) In
section 143 of the Immigration and Asylum Act 1999 (c. 33)
(destruction of fingerprints)—
(a) subsections (3) to (8) (requirement to destroy
fingerprints on resolution of asylum and immigration cases) shall cease to have
effect,
(b) in
subsection (9) (dependants) after “F” insert “(within the meaning of section
141(7))”, and
(c) subsection (14) (interpretation) shall cease to
have effect.
(2) Subsection (1)—
(a) shall have effect in relation to fingerprints
whether taken before or after the coming into force of this section, and
(b) in
relation to fingerprints which before the coming into force of this section were
required by section 143 to be destroyed, shall be treated as having had effect
before the requirement arose.
Part 5
Race and Religion
37 Meaning
of racial hatred
In section 17 of the Public Order
Act 1986 (c. 64) (racial hatred defined by reference to a group of persons in
Great Britain) omit the words “in Great Britain”.
38 Meaning of
fear and hatred
In Article 8 of the Public Order
(Northern Ireland) Order 1987 (S.I. 1987/463 (N.I. 7)) in the definition
of fear and the definition of hatred (fear and hatred defined by reference to a
group of persons in Northern Ireland) omit the words “in Northern Ireland”.
39 Religiously
aggravated offences
(1) Part 2 of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 (c. 37) is
amended as set out in subsections (2) to (6).
(2) In
the cross-heading preceding section 28 for “Racially-aggravated” substitute
“Racially or religiously aggravated”.
(3) In
section 28 (meaning of racially aggravated)—
(a) in
the sidenote and subsection (1) for “racially aggravated” substitute “racially
or religiously aggravated”;
(b) in
subsections (1) and (2) for “racial group” substitute “racial or religious
group”;
(c) in
subsection (3) for the words from “on” to the end of the subsection substitute
“on any other factor not mentioned in that paragraph.”
(4) In
section 28 after subsection (4) insert—
“(5)
In this section “religious group”
means a group of persons defined by reference to religious belief or lack of
religious belief.”
(5) In
each of the provisions listed in subsection (6)—
(a) in
the sidenote for “Racially-aggravated” substitute “Racially or religiously
aggravated”;
(b) in
subsection (1) for “racially aggravated” substitute “racially or religiously
aggravated”.
(6) The
provisions are—
(a) section 29 (assaults);
(b) section 30 (criminal damage);
(c) section 31 (public order offences);
(d) section 32 (harassment etc.).
(7) In
section 153 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6)
(increase in sentences for racial aggravation)—
(a) in
the sidenote for “racial aggravation” substitute “racial or religious
aggravation”;
(b) in
subsection (1) for the words from “racially-aggravated assaults” to the end of
the subsection substitute “racially or religiously aggravated assaults, criminal
damage, public order offences and harassment etc).”;
(c) in
subsections (2) and (3) for “racially aggravated” substitute “racially or
religiously aggravated”.
(8) In
section 24(2) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) (arrestable
offences) in paragraph (p) (offences falling within section 32(1)(a) of the
Crime and Disorder Act 1998) for “racially-aggravated” substitute “racially or
religiously aggravated”.
40 Racial
hatred offences: penalties
In section 27(3) of the Public
Order Act 1986 (c. 64) (penalties for racial hatred offences) for “two years”
substitute “seven years”.
41 Hatred and
fear offences: penalties
In Article 16(1) of the Public
Order (Northern Ireland) Order 1987 (S.I. 1987/ 463 (N.I. 7)) (penalties for
offences involving stirring up hatred or arousing fear) for “2 years” substitute
“7 years”.
42 Saving
This Part does not apply to
anything done before it comes into force.
Part 6
Weapons of Mass
Destruction
Amendment of the Biological Weapons Act 1974 and the
Chemical Weapons Act 1996
43 Transfers of biological agents and
toxins
In section 1 of the Biological
Weapons Act 1974 (c. 6) (restriction on development etc. of certain biological
agents and toxins and of biological weapons), after subsection (1) insert—
“(1A) A person shall not—
(a) transfer any biological agent or toxin to
another person or enter into an agreement to do so, or
(b) make arrangements under which another
person transfers any biological agent or toxin or enters into an agreement with
a third person to do so,
if the biological agent or toxin is likely to
be kept or used (whether by the transferee or any other person) otherwise than
for prophylactic, protective or other peaceful purposes and he knows or has
reason to believe that that is the case.”
44 Extraterritorial application of biological weapons
offences
After section 1 of the
Biological Weapons Act 1974 insert—
“1A Extraterritorial application of
section 1
(1) Section 1 applies to acts done outside the
United Kingdom, but only if they are done by a United Kingdom person.
(2) Proceedings for an offence committed under
section 1 outside the United Kingdom may be taken, and the offence may for
incidental purposes be treated as having been committed, in any place in the
United Kingdom.
(3) Her Majesty may by Order in Council extend
the application of section 1, so far as it applies to acts done outside the
United Kingdom, to bodies incorporated under the law of any of the Channel
Islands, the Isle of Man or any colony.
(4) In this section “United Kingdom person”
means a United Kingdom national, a Scottish partnership or a body incorporated
under the law of a part of the United Kingdom.
(5) For this purpose a United Kingdom national
is an individual who is—
(a) a British citizen, a British Dependent
Territories citizen, a British National (Overseas) or a British Overseas
citizen;
(b) a person who under the British Nationality
Act 1981 (c. 61) is a British subject; or
(c) a British protected person within the
meaning of that Act.
(6) Nothing in this section affects any
criminal liability arising otherwise than under this section.”
45 Customs and
Excise prosecutions for biological weapons offences
Before section 2 of the
Biological Weapons Act 1974 (c. 6) insert—
“1B Customs and Excise prosecutions
(1) Proceedings for a biological weapons
offence may be instituted by order of the Commissioners of Customs and Excise if
it appears to them that the offence has involved—
(a) the development or production outside the
United Kingdom of any thing mentioned in section 1(1)(a) or (b) above;
(b) the movement of any such thing into or out
of any country or territory;
(c) any proposal or attempt to do anything
falling within paragraph (a) or (b) above.
(2) In this section “biological weapons
offence” means an offence under section 1 of this Act or section 50 of the
Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (including an offence of aiding,
abetting, counselling, procuring or inciting the commission of, or attempting or
conspiring to commit, such an offence).
(3) Any proceedings for an offence which are
instituted under subsection (1) above shall be commenced in the name of an
officer, but may be continued by another officer.
(4) Where the Commissioners of Customs and
Excise investigate, or propose to investigate, any matter with a view to
determining—
(a) whether there are grounds for believing
that a biological weapons offence has been committed, or
(b) whether a person should be prosecuted for
such an offence,
that matter shall be treated as an assigned
matter within the meaning of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979.
(5) Nothing in this section affects any power
of any person (including any officer) apart from this section.
(6) In this section “officer” means a person
commissioned by the Commissioners of Customs and Excise.
(7) This section does not apply to the
institution of proceedings in Scotland.”
46 Customs and
Excise prosecutions for chemical weapons offences
Before section 31 of the
Chemical Weapons Act 1996 (c. 6) insert—
“30A Customs and Excise prosecutions
(1) Proceedings for a chemical weapons offence
may be instituted by order of the Commissioners of Customs and Excise if it
appears to them that the offence has involved—
(a) the development or production outside the
United Kingdom of a chemical weapon;
(b) the movement of a chemical weapon into or
out of any country or territory;
(c) any proposal or attempt to do anything
falling within paragraph (a) or (b).
(2) In this section “chemical weapons offence”
means an offence under section 2 above or section 50 of the Anti-terrorism,
Crime and Security Act 2001 (including an offence of aiding, abetting,
counselling, procuring or inciting the commission of, or attempting or
conspiring to commit, such an offence).
(3) Any proceedings for an offence which are
instituted under subsection (1) shall be commenced in the name of an officer,
but may be continued by another officer.
(4) Where the Commissioners of Customs and
Excise investigate, or propose to investigate, any matter with a view to
determining—
(a) whether there are grounds for believing
that a chemical weapons offence has been committed, or
(b) whether a person should be prosecuted for
such an offence,
that matter shall be treated as an assigned
matter within the meaning of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979.
(5) Nothing in this section affects any power
of any person (including any officer) apart from this section.
(6) In this section “officer” means a person
commissioned by the Commissioners of Customs and Excise.
(7) This section does not apply to the
institution of proceedings in Scotland.”
Nuclear
weapons
47 Use
etc. of nuclear weapons
(1) A
person who—
(a) knowingly causes a nuclear weapon
explosion;
(b) develops or produces, or participates in the
development or production of, a nuclear weapon;
(c) has
a nuclear weapon in his possession;
(d) participates in the transfer of a nuclear weapon;
or
(e) engages in military preparations, or in
preparations of a military nature, intending to use, or threaten to use, a
nuclear weapon,
is guilty of an offence.
(2) Subsection (1) has effect subject to the
exceptions and defences in sections 48 and 49.
(3) For
the purposes of subsection (1)(b) a person participates in the development or
production of a nuclear weapon if he does any act which—
(a) facilitates the development by another of the
capability to produce or use a nuclear weapon, or
(b) facilitates the making by another of a nuclear
weapon,
knowing or having reason to believe that his act has
(or will have) that effect.
(4) For
the purposes of subsection (1)(d) a person participates in the transfer of a
nuclear weapon if—
(a) he
buys or otherwise acquires it or agrees with another to do so;
(b) he
sells or otherwise disposes of it or agrees with another to do so; or
(c) he
makes arrangements under which another person either acquires or disposes of it
or agrees with a third person to do so.
(5) A
person guilty of an offence under this section is liable on conviction on
indictment to imprisonment for life.
(6) In
this section “nuclear weapon” includes a nuclear explosive device that is not
intended for use as a weapon.
(7) This section applies to acts done outside the
United Kingdom, but only if they are done by a United Kingdom person.
(8) Nothing in subsection (7) affects any criminal
liability arising otherwise than under that subsection.
(9) Paragraph (a) of subsection (1) shall cease to
have effect on the coming into force of the Nuclear Explosions (Prohibition and
Inspections) Act 1998 (c. 7).
48 Exceptions
(1) Nothing in section 47 applies—
(a) to
an act which is authorised under subsection (2); or
(b) to
an act done in the course of an armed conflict.
(2) The
Secretary of State may—
(a) authorise any act which would otherwise
contravene section 47 in such manner and on such terms as he thinks fit;
and
(b) withdraw or vary any authorisation given under
this subsection.
(3) Any
question arising in proceedings for an offence under section 47 as to whether
anything was done in the course of an armed conflict shall be determined by the
Secretary of State.
(4) A
certificate purporting to set out any such determination and to be signed by the
Secretary of State shall be received in evidence in any such proceedings and
shall be presumed to be so signed unless the contrary is shown.
49 Defences
(1) In
proceedings for an offence under section 47(1)(c) or (d) relating to an object
it is a defence for the accused to show that he did not know and had no reason
to believe that the object was a nuclear weapon.
(2) But
he shall be taken to have shown that fact if—
(a) sufficient evidence is adduced to raise an issue
with respect to it; and
(b) the
contrary is not proved by the prosecution beyond reasonable doubt.
(3) In
proceedings for such an offence it is also a defence for the accused to show
that he knew or believed that the object was a nuclear weapon but, as soon as
reasonably practicable after he first knew or believed that fact, he took all
reasonable steps to inform the Secretary of State or a constable of his
knowledge or belief.
Assisting
or inducing weapons-related acts overseas
50 Assisting or inducing certain weapons-related
acts overseas
(1) A
person who aids, abets, counsels or procures, or incites, a person who is not a
United Kingdom person to do a relevant act outside the United Kingdom is guilty
of an offence.
(2) For
this purpose a relevant act is an act that, if done by a United Kingdom person,
would contravene any of the following provisions—
(a) section 1 of the Biological Weapons Act 1974
(offences relating to biological agents and toxins);
(b) section 2 of the Chemical Weapons Act 1996
(offences relating to chemical weapons); or
(c) section 47 above (offences relating to nuclear
weapons).
(3) Nothing in this section applies to an act
mentioned in subsection (1) which—
(a) relates to a relevant act which would contravene
section 47; and
(b) is
authorised by the Secretary of State;
and section 48(2) applies for the purpose of
authorising acts that would otherwise constitute an offence under this
section.
(4) A
person accused of an offence under this section in relation to a relevant act
which would contravene a provision mentioned in subsection (2) may raise any
defence which would be open to a person accused of the corresponding offence
ancillary to an offence under that provision.
(5) A
person convicted of an offence under this section is liable on conviction on
indictment to imprisonment for life.
(6) This section applies to acts done outside the
United Kingdom, but only if they are done by a United Kingdom person.
(7) Nothing in this section prejudices any criminal
liability existing apart from this section.
Supplemental provisions relating to sections 47 and
50
51 Extraterritorial application
(1) Proceedings for an offence committed under
section 47 or 50 outside the United Kingdom may be taken, and the offence may
for incidental purposes be treated as having been committed, in any part of the
United Kingdom.
(2) Her
Majesty may by Order in Council extend the application of section 47 or 50, so
far as it applies to acts done outside the United Kingdom, to bodies
incorporated under the law of any of the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man or any
colony.
52 Powers of
entry
(1) If—
(a) a
justice of the peace is satisfied on information on oath that there are
reasonable grounds for suspecting that evidence of the commission of an offence
under section 47 or 50 is to be found on any premises; or
(b) in
Scotland the sheriff is satisfied by evidence on oath as mentioned in paragraph
(a),
he may issue a warrant authorising an authorised
officer to enter the premises, if necessary by force, at any time within one
month from the time of the issue of the warrant and to search them.
(2) The
powers of a person who enters the premises under the authority of the warrant
include power—
(a) to
take with him such other persons and such equipment as appear to him to be
necessary;
(b) to
inspect, seize and retain any substance, equipment or document found on the
premises;
(c) to
require any document or other information which is held in electronic form and
is accessible from the premises to be produced in a form—
(i) in
which he can read and copy it; or
(ii) from which it can readily be produced in a form
in which he can read and copy it;
(d) to
copy any document which he has reasonable cause to believe may be required as
evidence for the purposes of proceedings in respect of an offence under section
47 or 50.
(3) A
constable who enters premises under the authority of a warrant or by virtue of
subsection (2)(a) may—
(a) give such assistance as an authorised officer may
request for the purpose of facilitating the exercise of any power under this
section; and
(b) search or cause to be searched any person on the
premises who the constable has reasonable cause to believe may have in his
possession any document or other thing which may be required as evidence for the
purposes of proceedings in respect of an offence under section 47 or 50.
(4) No
constable shall search a person of the opposite sex.
(5) The
powers conferred by a warrant under this section shall only be exercisable, if
the warrant so provides, in the presence of a constable.
(6) A
person who—
(a) wilfully obstructs an authorised officer in the
exercise of a power conferred by a warrant under this section; or
(b) fails without reasonable excuse to comply with a
reasonable request made by an authorised officer or a constable for the purpose
of facilitating the exercise of such a power,
is guilty of an offence.
(7) A
person guilty of an offence under subsection (6) is liable—
(a) on
summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum; and
(b) on
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or
a fine (or both).
(8) In
this section “authorised officer” means an authorised officer of the Secretary
of State.
53 Customs and
Excise prosecutions
(1) Proceedings for a nuclear weapons offence may be
instituted by order of the Commissioners of Customs and Excise if it appears to
them that the offence has involved—
(a) the
development or production outside the United Kingdom of a nuclear weapon;
(b) the
movement of a nuclear weapon into or out of any country or territory;
(c) any
proposal or attempt to do anything falling within paragraph (a) or (b).
(2) In
this section “nuclear weapons offence” means an offence under section 47 or 50
(including an offence of aiding, abetting, counselling, procuring or inciting
the commission of, or attempting or conspiring to commit, such an
offence).
(3) Any
proceedings for an offence which are instituted under subsection (1) shall be
commenced in the name of an officer, but may be continued by another
officer.
(4) Where the Commissioners of Customs and Excise
investigate, or propose to investigate, any matter with a view to
determining—
(a) whether there are grounds for believing that a
nuclear weapons offence has been committed, or
(b) whether a person should be prosecuted for such an
offence,
that matter shall be treated as an assigned matter
within the meaning of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2).
(5) Nothing in this section affects any powers of any
person (including any officer) apart from this section.
(6) In
this section “officer” means a person commissioned by the Commissioners of
Customs and Excise.
(7) This section does not apply to the institution of
proceedings in Scotland.
54 Offences
(1) A
person who knowingly or recklessly makes a false or misleading statement for the
purpose of obtaining (or opposing the variation or withdrawal of) authorisation
for the purposes of section 47 or 50 is guilty of an offence.
(2) A
person guilty of an offence under subsection (1) is liable—
(a) on
summary conviction, to a fine of an amount not exceeding the statutory
maximum;
(b) on
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or
a fine (or both).
(3) Where an offence under section 47, 50 or
subsection (1) above committed by a body corporate is proved to have been
committed with the consent or connivance of, or to be attributable to any
neglect on the part of—
(a) a
director, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate;
or
(b) any
person who was purporting to act in any such capacity,
he as well as the body corporate shall be guilty of
that offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished
accordingly.
(4) In
subsection (3) “director”, in relation to a body corporate whose affairs are
managed by its members, means a member of the body corporate.
55 Consent to
prosecutions
Proceedings for an offence
under section 47 or 50 shall not be instituted—
(a) in
England and Wales, except by or with the consent of the Attorney General;
(b) in
Northern Ireland, except by or with the consent of the Attorney General for
Northern Ireland.
56 Interpretation of Part 6
(1) In
this Part “United Kingdom person” means a United Kingdom national, a Scottish
partnership or a body incorporated under the law of a part of the United
Kingdom.
(2) For
this purpose a United Kingdom national is an individual who is—
(a) a
British citizen, a British Dependent Territories citizen, a British National
(Overseas) or a British Overseas citizen;
(b) a
person who under the British Nationality Act 1981 (c. 61) is a British subject;
or
(c) a
British protected person within the meaning of that Act.
Extension
of Part 6 to dependencies
57 Power
to extend Part 6 to dependencies
Her Majesty may by Order in
Council direct that any of the provisions of this Part shall extend, with such
exceptions and modifications as appear to Her Majesty to be appropriate, to any
of the Channel Islands, the Isle of Man or to any British overseas
territory.
Part 7
Security of Pathogens and
Toxins
58 Pathogens and toxins in relation to which
requirements under Part 7 apply
(1) Schedule 5 (which lists the pathogens and toxins
in relation to which the requirements of this Part apply) has effect.
(2) The
Secretary of State may by order modify any provision of Schedule 5 (including
the notes).
(3) The
Secretary of State may not add any pathogen or toxin to that Schedule unless he
is satisfied that the pathogen or toxin could be used in an act of terrorism to
endanger life or cause serious harm to human health.
(4) In
this Part “dangerous substance” means—
(a) anything which consists of or includes a
substance for the time being mentioned in Schedule 5; or
(b) anything which is infected with or otherwise
carries any such substance.
(5) But
something otherwise falling within subsection (4) is not to be regarded as a
dangerous substance if—
(a) it
satisfies prescribed conditions; or
(b) it
is kept or used in prescribed circumstances.
59 Duty to
notify Secretary of State before keeping or using dangerous substances
(1) The
occupier of any premises must give a notice to the Secretary of State before any
dangerous substance is kept or used there.
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to premises in
respect of which a notice has previously been given under that subsection
(unless it has been withdrawn).
(3) The
occupier of any premises in respect of which a notice has been given may
withdraw the notice if no dangerous substance is kept or used there.
(4) A
notice under this section must—
(a) identify the premises in which the substance is
kept or used;
(b) identify any building or site of which the
premises form part; and
(c) contain such other particulars (if any) as may be
prescribed.
(5) The
occupier of any premises in which any dangerous substance is kept or used on the
day on which this section comes into force must give a notice under this section
before the end of the period of one month beginning with that day.
(6) Where—
(a) a
substance which is kept or used in any premises becomes a dangerous substance by
virtue of a modification of Schedule 5, but
(b) no
other dangerous substance is kept or used there,
the occupier of the premises must give a notice
under this section before the end of the period of one month beginning with the
day on which that modification comes into force.
60 Information
about security of dangerous substances
(1) A
constable may give to the occupier of any relevant premises a notice requiring
him to give the chief officer of police such information as is specified or
described in the notice by a time so specified and in a form and manner so
specified.
(2) The
required information must relate to—
(a) any
dangerous substance kept or used in the premises; or
(b) the
measures taken (whether by the occupier or any other person) to ensure the
security of any such substance.
(3) In
this Part references to measures taken to ensure the security of any dangerous
substance kept or used in any relevant premises include—
(a) measures taken to ensure the security of any
building or site of which the premises form part; and
(b) measures taken for the purpose of ensuring access
to the substance is given only to those whose activities require access and only
in circumstances that ensure the security of the substance.
(4) In
this Part “relevant premises” means any premises—
(a) in
which any dangerous substance is kept or used, or
(b) in
respect of which a notice under section 59 is in force.
61 Information
about persons with access to dangerous substances
(1) A
police officer of at least the rank of inspector may give to the occupier of any
relevant premises a notice requiring him to give the chief officer of police a
list of—
(a) each person who has access to any dangerous
substance kept or used there;
(b) each person who, in such circumstances as are
specified or described in the notice, has access to such part of the premises as
is so specified or described;
(c) each person who, in such circumstances as are
specified or described in the notice, has access to the premises; or
(d) each person who, in such circumstances as are
specified or described in the notice, has access to any building or site of
which the premises form part.
(2) A
list under subsection (1) must be given before the end of the period of one
month beginning with the day on which the notice is given.
(3) Where a list under subsection (1) is given, the
occupier of the premises for the time being—
(a) must secure that only the persons mentioned in
the list are given the access identified in the list relating to them;
but
(b) may
give a supplementary list to the chief officer of police of other persons to
whom it is proposed to give access.
(4) Where a supplementary list is given under
subsection (3)(b), the occupier of the premises for the time being must secure
that persons mentioned in that list do not have the proposed access relating to
them until the end of the period of 30 days beginning with the day on which that
list is given.
(5) The
chief officer of police may direct that a person may have such access before the
end of that period.
(6) The
Secretary of State may by order modify the period mentioned in subsection
(4).
(7) Any
list under this section must—
(a) identify the access which the person has, or is
proposed to have;
(b) state the full name of that person, his date of
birth, his address and his nationality; and
(c) contain such other matters (if any) as may be
prescribed.
62 Directions
requiring security measures
(1) A
constable may give directions to the occupier of any relevant premises requiring
him to take such measures to ensure the security of any dangerous substance kept
or used there as are specified or described in the directions by a time so
specified.
(2) The
directions may—
(a) specify or describe the substances in relation to
the security of which the measures relate; and
(b) require the occupier to give a notice to the
chief officer of police before any other dangerous substance specified or
described in the directions is kept or used in the premises.
63 Directions
requiring disposal of dangerous substances
(1) Where the Secretary of State has reasonable
grounds for believing that adequate measures to ensure the security of any
dangerous substance kept or used in any relevant premises are not being taken
and are unlikely to be taken, he may give a direction to the occupier of the
premises requiring him to dispose of the substance.
(2) The
direction must—
(a) specify the manner in which, and time by which,
the dangerous substance must be disposed of; or
(b) require the occupier to produce the dangerous
substance to a person specified or described in the notice in a manner and by a
time so specified for him to dispose of.
64 Directions
requiring denial of access
(1) The
Secretary of State may give directions to the occupier of any relevant premises
requiring him to secure that the person identified in the directions—
(a) is
not to have access to any dangerous substance kept or used there;
(b) is
not to have, in such circumstances (if any) as may be specified or described in
the directions, access to such part of the premises as is so specified or
described;
(c) is
not to have, in such circumstances (if any) as may be specified or described in
the directions, access to the premises; or
(d) is
not to have, in such circumstances (if any) as may be specified or described in
the directions, access to any building or site of which the premises form
part.
(2) The
directions must be given under the hand of the Secretary of State.
(3) The
Secretary of State may not give the directions unless he believes that they are
necessary in the interests of national security.
65 Powers of
entry
(1) A
constable may, on giving notice under this section, enter any relevant premises,
or any building or site of which the premises form part, at a reasonable time
for the purpose of assessing the measures taken to ensure the security of any
dangerous substance kept or used in the premises.
(2) The
notice must be given to the occupier of the premises, or (as the case may be)
the occupier of the building or site of which the premises form part, at least 2
working days before the proposed entry.
(3) The
notice must set out the purpose mentioned in subsection (1).
(4) A
constable who has entered any premises, building or site by virtue of subsection
(1) may for the purpose mentioned in that subsection—
(a) search the premises, building or site;
(b) require any person who appears to the constable
to be in charge of the premises, building or site to facilitate any such
inspection; and
(c) require any such person to answer any
question.
(5) The
powers of a constable under this section include power to take with him such
other persons as appear to him to be necessary.
66 Search
warrants
(1) If,
in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, on an application made by a constable
a justice of the peace is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for
believing—
(a) that a dangerous substance is kept or used in any
premises but that no notice under section 59 is in force in respect of the
premises, or
(b) that the occupier of any relevant premises is
failing to comply with any direction given to him under section 62 or 63,
and that any of the conditions mentioned in
subsection (4) apply, he may issue a warrant authorising a constable to enter
the premises, if necessary by force, and to search them.
(2) If,
in Scotland, on an application made by the procurator fiscal the sheriff is
satisfied as mentioned in subsection (1), he may issue a warrant authorising a
constable to enter the premises, if necessary by force, and to search
them.
(3) A
constable may seize and retain anything which he believes is or contains a
dangerous substance.
(4) The
conditions mentioned in subsection (1) are—
(a) that it is not practicable to communicate with
any person entitled to grant entry to the premises;
(b) that it is practicable to communicate with a
person entitled to grant entry to the premises but it is not practicable to
communicate with any person entitled to grant access to any substance which may
be a dangerous substance;
(c) that entry to the premises will not be granted
unless a warrant is produced;
(d) that the purpose of a search may be frustrated or
seriously prejudiced unless a constable arriving at the premises can secure
immediate entry to them.
67 Offences
(1) An
occupier who fails without reasonable excuse to comply with any duty or
direction imposed on him by or under this Part is guilty of an offence.
(2) A
person who, in giving any information to a person exercising functions under
this Part, knowingly or recklessly makes a statement which is false or
misleading in a material particular is guilty of an offence.
(3) A
person guilty of an offence under this section is liable—
(a) on
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years or
a fine (or both); and
(b) on
summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or a
fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both).
68 Bodies
corporate
(1) If
an offence under this Part committed by a body corporate is shown to have been
committed with the consent or connivance of, or to be attributable to any
neglect on the part of—
(a) any
officer, or
(b) any
other employee of the body corporate who is in charge of any relevant premises
or the access to any dangerous substance kept or used there,
he, as well as the body corporate, is guilty of the
offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
(2) In
this section “officer”, in relation to a body corporate, means—
(a) any
director, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate;
or
(b) any
person purporting to act in any such capacity.
(3) Where the affairs of a body corporate are managed
by its members, this section applies in relation to the acts and defaults of a
member in connection with his functions of management as if he were a director
of the body corporate.
69 Partnerships
and unincorporated associations
(1) Proceedings for an offence alleged to have been
committed by a partnership or an unincorporated association must be brought in
the name of the partnership or association (and not in that of any of its
members).
(2) A
fine imposed on the partnership or association on its conviction of an offence
is to be paid out of the funds of the partnership or association.
(3) Rules of court relating to the service of
documents are to have effect as if the partnership or association were a body
corporate.
(4) In
proceedings for an offence brought against the partnership or
association—
(a) section 33 of the Criminal Justice Act 1925 (c.
86) and Schedule 3 to the Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43) (procedure) apply
as they do in relation to a body corporate;
(b) sections 70 and 143 of the Criminal Procedure
(Scotland) Act 1995
(c. 46) (procedure) apply as they do in relation to a body corporate;
(c) section 18 of the Criminal Justice (Northern
Ireland) Act 1945 (c. 15 (N.I.)) and Schedule 4 to the Magistrates' Courts
(Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I. 26)) (procedure)
apply as they do in relation to a body corporate.
(5) If
an offence under this Part committed by a partnership is shown to have been
committed with the consent or connivance of, or to be attributable to any
neglect on the part of—
(a) a
partner or a person purporting to act as a partner, or
(b) any
employee of the partnership who is in charge of any relevant premises or the
access to any dangerous substance kept or used there,
he, as well as the partnership, is guilty of the
offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
(6) If
an offence under this Part committed by an unincorporated association is shown
to have been committed with the consent or connivance of, or to be attributable
to any neglect on the part of—
(a) any
officer, or
(b) any
employee of the association who is in charge of any relevant premises or the
access to any dangerous substance kept or used there,
he, as well as the association, is guilty of the
offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
(7) In
subsection (6) “officer”, in relation to any association, means—
(a) any
officer of the association or any member of its governing body; or
(b) any
person purporting to act in such a capacity.
70 Denial of
access: appeals
(1) There shall be a commission, to be known as the
Pathogens Access Appeal Commission.
(2) Any
person aggrieved by directions given under section 64 may appeal to the
Commission.
(3) The
Commission must allow an appeal if it considers that the decision to give the
directions was flawed when considered in the light of the principles applicable
on an application for judicial review.
(4) A
party to any appeal under this section which the Commission has determined may
bring a further appeal on a question of law to—
(a) the
Court of Appeal, if the first appeal was heard in England and Wales;
(b) the
Court of Session, if the first appeal was heard in Scotland; or
(c) the
Court of Appeal in Northern Ireland, if the first appeal was heard in Northern
Ireland.
(5) An
appeal under subsection () may be brought only with the permission of—
(a) the
Commission; or
(b) where the Commission refuses permission, the
court to which the appeal would be brought.
(6) Schedule 6 (constitution of the Commission and
procedure) has effect.
71 Other
appeals
(1) Any
person who is required to do any act in response to—
(a) any
notice under section 60, or
(b) any
directions under section 62 or 63,
may appeal to a magistrates' court against the
requirement on the ground that, having regard to all the circumstances of the
case, it is unreasonable to be required to do that act.
(2) An
appeal may not be brought after the end of the period of one month beginning
with the day on which the notice or directions were given.
(3) If
the magistrates' court allows the appeal, it may—
(a) direct that the required act need not be done;
or
(b) make such modification of the requirement as it
considers appropriate.
(4) An
appeal shall lie to the Crown Court against any decision of the magistrates'
court.
(5) Subsections (1) to (3) apply to Scotland with the
substitution for references to the magistrates' court of references to the
sheriff.
(6) The
appeal to the sheriff is by way of summary application.
(7) A
further appeal shall lie—
(a) to
the sheriff principal from the decision of the sheriff; and
(b) with the leave of the sheriff principal, to the
Court of Session from the decision of the sheriff principal.
(8) In
the application of this section to Northern Ireland references to a magistrates'
court are to a court of summary jurisdiction.
72 Giving of
directions or notices
Any direction or notice under this
Part may be given by post.
73 Orders and
regulations
(1) The
power to make an order or regulations under this Part is exercisable by
statutory instrument.
(2) A
statutory instrument containing an order under section 58 shall not be made
unless a draft of it has been laid before and approved by a resolution of each
House of Parliament.
(3) A
statutory instrument containing—
(a) an
order under section 61, or
(b) regulations under section 58, 59 or 61,
shall be subject to annulment in pursuance of a
resolution of either House of Parliament.
74 Interpretation of Part 7
(1) In
this Part—
-
“act of terrorism” has the same meaning
as in the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11);
-
“chief officer of police” means—
(a)
in relation to any premises in Great
Britain, the chief officer of police for the area in which the premises are
situated; and
(b)
in relation to any premises in Northern
Ireland, the Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern
Ireland;
-
“dangerous substance” has the meaning
given in section 58;
-
“direction” means a direction in
writing;
-
“notice” means a notice in writing;
-
“occupier” includes a partnership or
unincorporated association and, in relation to premises that are unoccupied,
means any person entitled to occupy the premises;
-
“prescribed” means prescribed in
regulations made by the Secretary of State; and
-
“relevant premises” has the meaning
given in section 60.
(2) In
this Part references to measures taken to ensure the security of any dangerous
substance are to be construed in accordance with section 60.
75 Power to
extend Part 7 to animal or plant pathogens, pests or toxic chemicals
(1) The
Secretary of State may, in relation to anything to which this section applies,
make an order applying, or making provision corresponding to, any provision of
this Part, with or without modifications.
(2) This section applies to—
(a) toxic chemicals (within the meaning of the
Chemical Weapons Act 1996 (c. 6));
(b) animal pathogens;
(c) plant pathogens; and
(d) pests.
(3) The
power under this section may be exercised in relation to any chemical only if
the Secretary of State is satisfied that the chemical could be used in an act of
terrorism to endanger life or cause serious harm to human health.
(4) The
power under this section may be exercised in relation to any pathogen or pest
only if the Secretary of State is satisfied that there is a risk that the
pathogen or pest is of a description that could be used in an act of terrorism
to cause—
(a) widespread damage to property;
(b) significant disruption to the public; or
(c) significant alarm to the public.
(5) An
order under this section may—
(a) provide for any reference in the order to an
instrument or other document to take effect as a reference to that instrument or
document as revised or re-issued from time to time;
(b) make different provision for different purposes;
and
(c) make such incidental, supplementary and
transitional provision as the Secretary of State thinks fit.
(6) A
statutory instrument containing an order under this section shall not be made
unless a draft of it has been laid before and approved by a resolution of each
House of Parliament.
Part 8
Security of Nuclear
Industry
76 Atomic
Energy Authority special constables
(1) Section 3 of the Special Constables Act 1923 (c.
11) shall have effect as if all nuclear sites that are not for the time being
designated under subsection (2) were premises under the control of the United
Kingdom Atomic Energy Authority.
(2) The
Secretary of State may by order made by statutory instrument designate any
nuclear sites which appear to him to be used wholly or mainly for defence
purposes as premises to which subsection (1) does not apply.
(3) An
AEA constable shall have the powers and privileges (and be liable to the duties
and responsibilities) of a constable anywhere within 5 kilometres of the limits
of the nuclear sites to which subsection (1) applies.
(4) An
AEA constable shall have the powers and privileges (and be liable to the duties
and responsibilities) of a constable anywhere it appears to him expedient to
go—
(a) in
order to safeguard any nuclear material which is being carried (or being
trans-shipped or stored incidentally to its carriage) before its delivery at its
final destination; or
(b) in
order to pursue, arrest, place in the custody of the police, or take to any
premises within which the constable was appointed to act, a person who the
constable reasonably believes has (or has attempted to) unlawfully remove or
interfere with any nuclear material being safeguarded by the constable.
(5) An
AEA constable shall have the powers and privileges (and be liable to the duties
and responsibilities) of a constable at any place at which he reasonably
believes a particular consignment of nuclear material will be trans-shipped or
stored incidentally to its carriage, in order to ensure the security of the
nuclear material on its arrival at that place.
(6) This section has effect in United Kingdom waters
adjacent to Great Britain as it applies in Great Britain.
(7) In
this section—
-
“AEA constable” means a person
appointed on the nomination of the United Kingdom Atomic Energy Authority to be
a special constable under section 3 of the Special Constables Act 1923;
-
“nuclear material” means—
(a)
any fissile material in the form of
uranium metal, alloy or chemical compound, or of plutonium metal, alloy or
chemical compound; or
(b)
any other fissile material which may be
prescribed by regulations made by the Secretary of State;
-
“nuclear site” means premises in
respect of which a nuclear site licence (within the meaning of the Nuclear
Installations Act 1965 (c. 57)) is for the time being in force; and
-
“United Kingdom waters” means waters
within the seaward limits of the territorial sea.
(8) An
order under subsection (2) shall be laid before Parliament after being
made.
(9) The
power to make regulations under subsection (7) is exercisable by statutory
instrument subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of
Parliament.
77 Regulation
of security of civil nuclear industry
(1) The
Secretary of State may make regulations for the purpose of ensuring the security
of—
(a) nuclear sites and other nuclear premises;
(b) nuclear material used or stored on nuclear sites
or other nuclear premises and equipment or software used or stored on such sites
or premises in connection with activities involving nuclear material;
(c) other radioactive material used or stored on
nuclear sites and equipment or software used or stored on nuclear sites in
connection with activities involving other radioactive material;
(d) sensitive nuclear information which is in the
possession or control of anyone who is (or is expected to be) involved in
activities on, or in relation to, any nuclear site or other nuclear
premises;
(e) nuclear material which is being (or is expected
to be)—
(i) transported within the United Kingdom or its
territorial sea;
(ii) transported (outside the United Kingdom and its
territorial sea) to or from any nuclear site or other nuclear premises in the
United Kingdom; or
(iii) carried on board a United Kingdom ship;
(f) information relating to the security of anything
mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (e).
(2) The
regulations may, in particular—
(a) require a person to produce for the approval of
the Secretary of State a plan for ensuring the security of anything mentioned in
subsection (1) and to comply with the plan as approved by the Secretary of
State;
(b) require compliance with any directions given by
the Secretary of State;
(c) impose requirements in relation to any activities
by reference to the approval of the Secretary of State;
(d) create summary offences or offences triable
either way;
(e) make provision for the purposes mentioned in
subsection (1) corresponding to any provision which may be made for the general
purposes of Part 1 of the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act 1974 (c. 37) by virtue of
section 15(2), (3)(c) and (4) to (8) of that Act (health and safety
regulations);
(f) make provision corresponding to any provision
which may be made by virtue of section 43(2) to (5), (8) and (9) of that Act
(fees), in connection with the performance by or on behalf of the Secretary of
State or any other specified body or person of functions under the regulations;
and
(g) apply (with or without modifications), or make
provision corresponding to, any provision contained in sections 19 to 42 and 44
to 47 of that Act.
(3) An
offence under the regulations may be made punishable—
(a) in
the case of an offence triable either way—
(i) on
conviction on indictment, with imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years
or a fine (or both); and
(ii) on
summary conviction, with imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or a
fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both); or
(b) in
the case of a summary offence, with imprisonment for a term not exceeding six
months or a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale (or both).
(4) The
regulations may make—
(a) provision applying to acts done outside the
United Kingdom by United Kingdom persons;
(b) different provision for different purposes;
and
(c) such incidental, supplementary and transitional
provision as the Secretary of State considers appropriate.
(5) Before making the regulations the Secretary of
State shall consult—
(a) the
Health and Safety Commission; and
(b) such other persons as he considers
appropriate.
(6) The
power to make the regulations is exercisable by statutory instrument subject to
annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of Parliament.
(7) In
this section—
-
“nuclear material” and “nuclear site”
have the same meaning as in section 76;
-
“other nuclear premises” means premises
other than a nuclear site on which nuclear material is used or stored;
-
“sensitive nuclear information”
means—
(a)
information relating to, or capable of
use in connection with, any treatment of uranium that increases the proportion
of the isotope 235 contained in the uranium; or
(b)
information relating to activities
carried out on or in relation to nuclear sites or other nuclear premises which
appears to the Secretary of State to be information which needs to be protected
in the interests of national security;
-
“United Kingdom ship” means a ship
registered in the United Kingdom under Part 2 of the Merchant Shipping Act 1995 (c.
21)
(8) Any
sums received by virtue of provision made under subsection (2)(f) shall be paid
into the Consolidated Fund.
78 Repeals
relating to security of civil nuclear installations
(1) In
Schedule 1 to the Nuclear Installations Act 1965 (c. 57) (security provisions
applicable by order under section 2 of that Act), paragraphs 5 and 6 shall cease
to have effect.
(2) In
section 19(1) of the Atomic Energy Authority Act 1971 (c. 11) (application of
certain security provisions to designated companies), for “Paragraphs 4 to 6”
and “they apply” substitute respectively “Paragraph 4” and “it applies”.
79 Prohibition
of disclosures relating to nuclear security
(1) A
person is guilty of an offence if he discloses any information or thing the
disclosure of which might prejudice the security of any nuclear site or of any
nuclear material—
(a) with the intention of prejudicing that security;
or
(b) being reckless as to whether the disclosure might
prejudice that security.
(2) The
reference in subsection (1) to nuclear material is a reference to—
(a) nuclear material which is being held on any
nuclear site, or
(b) nuclear material anywhere in the world which is
being transported to or from a nuclear site or carried on board a British
ship,
(including nuclear material which is expected to be
so held, transported or carried).
(3) A
person guilty of an offence under subsection (1) is liable—
(a) on
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding seven years
or a fine (or both); and
(b) on
summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or a
fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both).
(4) In
this section—
-
“British ship” means a ship (including
a ship belonging to Her Majesty) which is registered in the United Kingdom;
-
“disclose” and “disclosure”, in
relation to a thing, include parting with possession of it;
-
“nuclear material” has the same meaning
as in section 76; and
-
“nuclear site” means a site in the
United Kingdom (including a site occupied by or on behalf of the Crown) which is
(or is expected to be) used for any purpose mentioned in section 1(1) of the
Nuclear Installations Act 1965 (c. 57).
(5) This section applies to acts done outside the
United Kingdom, but only if they are done by a United Kingdom person.
(6) Proceedings for an offence committed outside the
United Kingdom may be taken, and the offence may for incidental purposes be
treated as having been committed, in any place in the United Kingdom.
(7) Nothing in subsection (5) affects any criminal
liability arising otherwise than under that subsection.
80 Prohibition
of disclosures of uranium enrichment technology
(1) This section applies to—
(a) any
information about the enrichment of uranium; or
(b) any
information or thing which is, or is likely to be, used in connection with the
enrichment of uranium;
and for this purpose “the enrichment of uranium”
means any treatment of uranium that increases the proportion of the isotope 235
contained in the uranium.
(2) The
Secretary of State may make regulations prohibiting the disclosure of
information or things to which this section applies.
(3) A
person who contravenes a prohibition is guilty of an offence and liable—
(a) on
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding seven years
or a fine (or both); and
(b) on
summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or a
fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both).
(4) The
regulations may, in particular, provide for—
(a) a
prohibition to apply, or not to apply—
(i) to
such information or things; and
(ii) in
such cases or circumstances,
as may be prescribed;
(b) the
authorisation by the Secretary of State of disclosures that would otherwise be
prohibited; and
(c) defences to an offence under subsection (3)
relating to any prohibition.
(5) The
regulations may—
(a) provide for any prohibition to apply to acts done
outside the United Kingdom by United Kingdom persons;
(b) make different provision for different purposes;
and
(c) make such incidental, supplementary and
transitional provision as the Secretary of State thinks fit.
(6) The
power to make the regulations is exercisable by statutory instrument.
(7) The
regulations shall not be made unless a draft of the regulations has been laid
before and approved by each House of Parliament.
(8) In
this section—
-
“disclosure”, in relation to a thing,
includes parting with possession of it;
-
“information” includes software;
and
-
“prescribed” means specified or
described in the regulations.
81 Part 8:
supplementary
(1) Proceedings for an offence under section 79 or 80
shall not be instituted—
(a) in
England and Wales, except by or with the consent of the Attorney General;
or
(b) in
Northern Ireland, except by or with the consent of the Attorney General for
Northern Ireland.
(2) In
this Part “United Kingdom person” means a United Kingdom national, a Scottish
partnership or a body incorporated under the law of any part of the United
Kingdom.
(3) For
this purpose a United Kingdom national is an individual who is—
(a) a
British citizen, a British Dependent Territories citizen, a British National
(Overseas) or a British Overseas citizen;
(b) a
person who under the British Nationality Act 1981 (c. 61) is a British subject;
or
(c) a
British protected person within the meaning of that Act.
Part 9
Aviation Security
82 Arrest
without warrant
(1) At
the end of section 24(2) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60)
(arrest without warrant: particular offences) insert—
“(u)
an offence under section 21C(1) or
21D(1) of the Aviation Security Act 1982 (c. 36) (unauthorised presence in
restricted zone or on aircraft);
(v) an offence under section 39(1) of the
Civil Aviation Act 1982 (c. 16) (trespass on aerodrome).”
(2) At
the end of Article 26(2) of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland)
Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12))
(arrest without warrant: particular offences) insert—
“(j)
an offence under section 21C(1) or
21D(1) of the Aviation Security Act 1982 (unauthorised presence in restricted
zone or on aircraft);
(k) an offence under section 39(1) of the
Civil Aviation Act 1982 (trespass on aerodrome).”
(3) Where, in Scotland, a constable has reasonable
grounds for suspecting that a person has committed—
(a) an
offence under section 21C(1) or 21D(1) of the Aviation Security Act 1982
(unauthorised presence in restricted zone or on aircraft);
(b) an
offence under section 39(1) of the Civil Aviation Act 1982 (trespass on
aerodrome),
he may arrest that person without warrant.
(4) This section shall have effect in relation to an
offence committed or alleged to have been committed after the end of the period
of two months beginning with the day on which this Act is passed.
83 Trespass on
aerodrome: penalty
(1) In
section 39(1) of the Civil Aviation Act 1982 (trespass on aerodrome) for “level
1 on the standard scale” substitute “level 3 on the standard scale”.
(2) This section shall have effect in relation to an
offence committed after the end of the period of two months beginning with the
day on which this Act is passed.
84 Removal of
intruder
(1) At
the end of section 21C of the Aviation Security Act 1982 (unauthorised presence
in aerodrome) add—
“(4)
A constable, the manager of an
aerodrome or a person acting on his behalf may use reasonable force to remove a
person who fails to comply with a request under subsection (1)(b) above.”
(2) At
the end of section 21D of that Act (unauthorised presence on aircraft)
add—
“(3)
A constable, the operator of an
aircraft or a person acting on his behalf may use reasonable force to remove a
person who fails to comply with a request under subsection (1)(b) above.”
85 Aviation
security services
After section 20 of the Aviation
Security Act 1982 (c. 36) (security directions: inspection) insert—
“20A Aviation security services: approved
providers
(1) In this section “aviation security
service” means a process or activity carried out for the purpose of—
(a) complying with a requirement of a
direction under any of sections 12 to 14, or
(b) facilitating a person’s compliance with a
requirement of a direction under any of those sections.
(2) Regulations may provide for the Secretary
of State to maintain a list of persons who are approved by him for the provision
of a particular aviation security service.
(3) The regulations may—
(a) prohibit the provision of an aviation
security service by a person who is not listed in respect of that
service;
(b) prohibit the use or engagement for the
provision of an aviation security service of a person who is not listed in
respect of that service;
(c) create a criminal offence;
(d) make provision about application for
inclusion in the list (including provision about fees);
(e) make provision about the duration and
renewal of entries on the list (including provision about fees);
(f) make provision about training or
qualifications which persons who apply to be listed or who are listed are
required to undergo or possess;
(g) make provision about removal from the list
which shall include provision for appeal;
(h) make provision about the inspection of
activities carried out by listed persons;
(i) confer functions on the Secretary of State
or on a specified person;
(j) confer jurisdiction on a court.
(4) Regulations under subsection
(3)(c)—
(a) may not provide for a penalty on summary
conviction greater than a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum,
(b) may not provide for a penalty of
imprisonment on conviction on indictment greater than imprisonment for a term
not exceeding two years (whether or not accompanied by a fine), and
(c) may create a criminal offence of
purporting, with intent to deceive, to do something as a listed person or of
doing something, with intent to deceive, which purports to be done by a listed
person.
(5) A direction under any of sections 12 to 14
may—
(a) include a requirement to use a listed
person for the provision of an aviation security service;
(b) provide for all or part of the direction
not to apply or to apply with modified effect where a listed person provides an
aviation security service.
(6) Regulations under this section—
(a) may make different provision for different
cases,
(b) may include incidental, supplemental or
transitional provision,
(c) shall be made by the Secretary of State by
statutory instrument,
(d) shall not be made unless the Secretary of
State has consulted organisations appearing to him to represent persons affected
by the regulations, and
(e) shall be subject to annulment in pursuance
of a resolution of either House of Parliament.”
86 Detention of
aircraft
(1) After section 20A of the Aviation Security Act
1982 (c. 36) (aviation security services) (inserted by section 85))
insert—
“Detention of
aircraft
20B Detention direction
(1) An authorised person may give a detention
direction in respect of an aircraft if he is of the opinion that—
(a) a person has failed to comply or is likely
to fail to comply with a requirement of a direction under section 12 or 14 of
this Act in respect of the aircraft,
(b) a person has failed to comply with a
requirement of an enforcement notice in respect of the aircraft,
(c) a threat has been made to commit an act of
violence against the aircraft or against any person or property on board the
aircraft, or
(d) an act of violence is likely to be
committed against the aircraft or against any person or property on board the
aircraft.
(2) A detention direction in respect of an
aircraft—
(a) shall be given in writing to the operator
of the aircraft, and
(b) shall require him to take steps to ensure
that the aircraft does not fly while the direction is in force.
(3) An authorised person who has given a
detention direction in respect of an aircraft may do anything which he considers
necessary or expedient for the purpose of ensuring that the aircraft does not
fly while the direction is in force; in particular, the authorised person
may—
(a) enter the aircraft;
(b) arrange for another person to enter the
aircraft;
(c) arrange for a person or thing to be
removed from the aircraft;
(d) use reasonable force;
(e) authorise the use of reasonable force by
another person.
(4) The operator of an aircraft in respect of
which a detention direction is given may object to the direction in writing to
the Secretary of State.
(5) On receipt of an objection to a detention
direction under subsection (4) the Secretary of State shall—
(a) consider the objection,
(b) allow the person making the objection and
the authorised person who gave the direction an opportunity to make written or
oral representations to the Secretary of State or to a person appointed by
him,
(c) confirm, vary or cancel the direction,
and
(d) give notice of his decision in writing to
the person who made the objection and to the authorised person who gave the
direction.
(6) A detention direction in respect of an
aircraft shall continue in force until—
(a) an authorised person cancels it by notice
in writing to the operator of the aircraft, or
(b) the Secretary of State cancels it under
subsection (5)(c).
(7) A person commits an offence if—
(a) without reasonable excuse he fails to
comply with a requirement of a detention direction, or
(b) he intentionally obstructs a person acting
in accordance with subsection (3).
(8) A person who is guilty of an offence under
subsection (7) shall be liable—
(a) on summary conviction, to a fine not
exceeding the statutory maximum, or
(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine, to
imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or to both.
(9) A detention direction may be given in
respect of—
(a) any aircraft in the United Kingdom,
and
(b) any aircraft registered or operating in
the United Kingdom.
(10) A detention direction may be given in
respect of a class of aircraft; and for that purpose—
(a) a reference to “the aircraft” in
subsection (1) shall be treated as a reference to all or any of the aircraft
within the class, and
(b) subsections (2) to (9) shall apply as if
the direction were given in respect of each aircraft within the class.”
(2) In
section 23 of the Aviation Security Act 1982 (c. 36) (annual report)—
(a) in
subsection (1) after “enforcement notices” insert “and detention directions”,
and
(b) in
subsection (2) for “and enforcement notices” substitute “, enforcement notices
and detention directions”.
(3) At
the end of section 24 of that Act add—
“(9)
Subsections (6) to (8) above shall
apply to a detention direction as they apply to an enforcement notice.”
87 Air cargo
agent: documents
After section 21F of the Aviation
Security Act 1982 (air cargo agents) insert—
“21F A Air cargo agents: documents
(1) A person commits an offence if with intent
to deceive he issues a document which purports to be issued by a person on a
list of approved air cargo agents maintained under section 21F(2)(a) of this
Act.
(2) A person guilty of an offence under
subsection (1) shall be liable on summary conviction to imprisonment for a term
not exceeding six months or to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard
scale or to both.”
88 Extent
outside United Kingdom
(1) The
powers in section 108(1) and (2) of the Civil Aviation Act 1982 (c. 16)
(extension outside United Kingdom) apply to provisions of this Part which amend
that Act.
(2) The
powers in section 39(3) of the Aviation Security Act 1982 (extension outside
United Kingdom) apply to provisions of this Part which amend that Act.
Part 10
Police Powers
Identification
89 Fingerprinting of terrorist suspects
(1) Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)
(persons detained under terrorism provisions) is amended as follows.
(2) In
paragraph 10, at the beginning of sub-paragraph (6) (grounds on which officer
may authorise fingerprinting or taking of sample), insert “Subject to
sub-paragraph (6A)”; and after that sub-paragraph insert—
“(6A) An officer may also give an authorisation
under sub-paragraph (4)(a) for the taking of fingerprints if—
(a) he is satisfied that the fingerprints of
the detained person will facilitate the ascertainment of that person’s identity;
and
(b) that person has refused to identify
himself or the officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting that that person is
not who he claims to be.
(6B) In this paragraph references to
ascertaining a person’s identity include references to showing that he is not a
particular person.”
(3) In
paragraph 20(2), for the subsection (2) substituted by way of modification of
section 18 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46)
substitute—
“(2)
Subject to subsection (2A), a
constable may take from a detained person or require a detained person to
provide relevant physical data only if—
(a) in the case of a person detained under
section 41 of the Terrorism Act 2000, he reasonably suspects that the person has
been involved in an offence under any of the provisions mentioned in section
40(1)(a) of that Act and he reasonably believes that the relevant physical data
will tend to confirm or disprove his involvement; or
(b) in any case, he is satisfied that it is
necessary to do so in order to assist in determining whether the person falls
within section 40(1)(b).
(2A) A constable may also take fingerprints
from a detained person or require him to provide them if—
(a) he is satisfied that the fingerprints of
that person will facilitate the ascertainment of that person’s identity;
and
(b) that person has refused to identify
himself or the constable has reasonable grounds for suspecting that that person
is not who he claims to be.
(2B) In this section references to ascertaining
a person’s identity include references to showing that he is not a particular
person.’”
(4) For
paragraph 20(3) substitute—
“(3)
Subsections (3) to (5) shall not
apply, but any relevant physical data or sample taken in pursuance of section 18
as applied by this paragraph may be retained but shall not be used by any person
except for the purposes of a terrorist investigation or for purposes related to
the prevention or detection of crime, the investigation of an offence or the
conduct of a prosecution.
(4) In this paragraph—
(a) a reference to crime includes a reference
to any conduct which—
(i) constitutes one or more criminal offences
(whether under the law of a part of the United Kingdom or of a country or
territory outside the United Kingdom); or
(ii) is, or corresponds to, any conduct which,
if it all took place in any one part of the United Kingdom, would constitute one
or more criminal offences; and
(b) the references to an investigation and to
a prosecution include references, respectively, to any investigation outside the
United Kingdom of any crime or suspected crime and to a prosecution brought in
respect of any crime in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom.”
90 Searches,
examinations and fingerprinting: England and Wales
(1) After section 54 of the Police and Criminal
Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) (searches of detained persons) insert—
“54A Searches and examination to ascertain
identity
(1) If an officer of at least the rank of
inspector authorises it, a person who is detained in a police station may be
searched or examined, or both—
(a) for the purpose of ascertaining whether he
has any mark that would tend to identify him as a person involved in the
commission of an offence; or
(b) for the purpose of facilitating the
ascertainment of his identity.
(2) An officer may only give an authorisation
under subsection (1) for the purpose mentioned in paragraph (a) of that
subsection if—
(a) the appropriate consent to a search or
examination that would reveal whether the mark in question exists has been
withheld; or
(b) it is not practicable to obtain such
consent.
(3) An officer may only give an authorisation
under subsection (1) in a case in which subsection (2) does not apply if—
(a) the person in question has refused to
identify himself; or
(b) the officer has reasonable grounds for
suspecting that that person is not who he claims to be.
(4) An officer may give an authorisation under
subsection (1) orally or in writing but, if he gives it orally, he shall confirm
it in writing as soon as is practicable.
(5) Any identifying mark found on a search or
examination under this section may be photographed—
(a) with the appropriate consent; or
(b) if the appropriate consent is withheld or
it is not practicable to obtain it, without it.
(6) Where a search or examination may be
carried out under this section, or a photograph may be taken under this section,
the only persons entitled to carry out the search or examination, or to take the
photograph, are—
(a) constables; and
(b) persons who (without being constables) are
designated for the purposes of this section by the chief officer of police for
the police area in which the police station in question is situated;
and section 117 (use of force) applies to the
exercise by a person falling within paragraph (b) of the powers conferred by the
preceding provisions of this section as it applies to the exercise of those
powers by a constable.
(7) A person may not under this section carry
out a search or examination of a person of the opposite sex or take a photograph
of any part of the body of a person of the opposite sex.
(8) An intimate search may not be carried out
under this section.
(9) A photograph taken under this
section—
(a) may be used by, or disclosed to, any
person for any purpose related to the prevention or detection of crime, the
investigation of an offence or the conduct of a prosecution; and
(b) after being so used or disclosed, may be
retained but may not be used or disclosed except for a purpose so
related.
(10) In subsection —
(a) the reference to crime includes a
reference to any conduct which—
(i) constitutes one or more criminal offences
(whether under the law of a part of the United Kingdom or of a country or
territory outside the United Kingdom); or
(ii) is, or corresponds to, any conduct which,
if it all took place in any one part of the United Kingdom, would constitute one
or more criminal offences;
and
(b) the references to an investigation and to
a prosecution include references, respectively, to any investigation outside the
United Kingdom of any crime or suspected crime and to a prosecution brought in
respect of any crime in a country or territory outside the United
Kingdom.
(11) In this section—
(a) references to ascertaining a person’s
identity include references to showing that he is not a particular person;
and
(b) references to taking a photograph include
references to using any process by means of which a visual image may be
produced, and references to photographing a person shall be construed
accordingly.
(12) In this section “mark” includes features
and injuries; and a mark is an identifying mark for the purposes of this section
if its existence in any person’s case facilitates the ascertainment of his
identity or his identification as a person involved in the commission of an
offence.”
(2) In
section 61(4) of that Act (grounds on which fingerprinting of person detained at
a police station may be authorised)—
(a) in
paragraph (b), after “his involvement” insert “or will facilitate the
ascertainment of his identity (within the meaning of section 54A), or
both”;
(b) after that paragraph insert—
“but an authorisation
shall not be given for the purpose only of facilitating the ascertainment of
that person’s identity except where he has refused to identify himself or the
officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting that he is not who he claims to
be.”
91 Searches,
examinations and fingerprinting: Northern Ireland
(1) After Article 55 of the Police and Criminal
Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12))
(searches of detained persons) insert—
“55A Searches and examination to ascertain
identity
(1) If an officer of at least the rank of
inspector authorises it, a person who is detained in a police station may be
searched or examined, or both—
(a) for the purpose of ascertaining whether he
has any mark that would tend to identify him as a person involved in the
commission of an offence; or
(b) for the purpose of facilitating the
ascertainment of his identity.
(2) An officer may only give an authorisation
under paragraph (1) for the purpose mentioned in sub-paragraph (a) of that
paragraph if—
(a) the appropriate consent to a search or
examination that would reveal whether the mark in question exists has been
withheld; or
(b) it is not practicable to obtain such
consent.
(3) An officer may only give an authorisation
under paragraph (1) in a case in which paragraph (2) does not apply if—
(a) the person in question has refused to
identify himself; or
(b) the officer has reasonable grounds for
suspecting that that person is not who he claims to be.
(4) An officer may give an authorisation under
paragraph (1) orally or in writing but, if he gives it orally, he shall confirm
it in writing as soon as is practicable.
(5) Any identifying mark found on a search or
examination under this Article may be photographed—
(a) with the appropriate consent; or
(b) if the appropriate consent is withheld or
it is not practicable to obtain it, without it.
(6) Where a search or examination may be
carried out under this Article, or a photograph may be taken under this Article,
the only persons entitled to carry out the search or examination, or to take the
photograph, are—
(a) constables; and
(b) persons who (without being constables) are
designated for the purposes of this Article by the Chief Constable;
and Article 88 (use of force) applies to the
exercise by a person falling within sub-paragraph (b) of the powers conferred by
the preceding provisions of this Article as it applies to the exercise of those
powers by a constable.
(7) A person may not under this Article carry
out a search or examination of a person of the opposite sex or take a photograph
of any part of the body of a person of the opposite sex.
(8) An intimate search may not be carried out
under this Article.
(9) A photograph taken under this
Article—
(a) may be used by, or disclosed to, any
person for any purpose related to the prevention or detection of crime, the
investigation of an offence or the conduct of a prosecution; and
(b) after being so used or disclosed, may be
retained but may not be used or disclosed except for a purpose so
related.
(10) In paragraph (9)—
(a) the reference to crime includes a
reference to any conduct which—
(i) constitutes one or more criminal offences
(whether under the law of a part of the United Kingdom or of a country or
territory outside the United Kingdom); or
(ii) is, or corresponds to, any conduct which,
if it all took place in any one part of the United Kingdom, would constitute one
or more criminal offences;
and
(b) the references to an investigation and to
a prosecution include references, respectively, to any investigation outside the
United Kingdom of any crime or suspected crime and to a prosecution brought in
respect of any crime in a country or territory outside the United
Kingdom.
(11) In this Article—
(a) references to ascertaining a person’s
identity include references to showing that he is not a particular person;
and
(b) references to taking a photograph include
references to using any process by means of which a visual image may be
produced, and references to photographing a person shall be construed
accordingly.
(12) In this Article “mark” includes features
and injuries; and a mark is an identifying mark for the purposes of this Article
if its existence in any person’s case facilitates the ascertainment of his
identity or his identification as a person involved in the commission of an
offence.”
(2) In
Article 61(4) of that Order (grounds on which fingerprinting of person detained
at a police station may be authorised)—
(a) in
sub-paragraph (b), after “his involvement” insert “or will facilitate the
ascertainment of his identity (within the meaning of Article 55A), or both”;
and
(b) after that sub-paragraph insert—
“but an authorisation
shall not be given for the purpose only of facilitating the ascertainment of
that person’s identity except where he has refused to identify himself or the
officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting that he is not who he claims to
be.”
92 Photographing of suspects etc.: England and Wales
After section 64 of the
Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) insert—
“64A Photographing of suspects etc.
(1) A person who is detained at a police
station may be photographed—
(a) with the appropriate consent; or
(b) if the appropriate consent is withheld or
it is not practicable to obtain it, without it.
(2) A person proposing to take a photograph of
any person under this section—
(a) may, for the purpose of doing so, require
the removal of any item or substance worn on or over the whole or any part of
the head or face of the person to be photographed; and
(b) if the requirement is not complied with,
may remove the item or substance himself.
(3) Where a photograph may be taken under this
section, the only persons entitled to take the photograph are—
(a) constables; and
(b) persons who (without being constables) are
designated for the purposes of this section by the chief officer of police for
the police area in which the police station in question is situated;
and section 117 (use of force) applies to the
exercise by a person falling within paragraph (b) of the powers conferred by the
preceding provisions of this section as it applies to the exercise of those
powers by a constable.
(4) A photograph taken under this
section—
(a) may be used by, or disclosed to, any
person for any purpose related to the prevention or detection of crime, the
investigation of an offence or the conduct of a prosecution; and
(b) after being so used or disclosed, may be
retained but may not be used or disclosed except for a purpose so
related.
(5) In subsection (4)—
(a) the reference to crime includes a
reference to any conduct which—
(i) constitutes one or more criminal offences
(whether under the law of a part of the United Kingdom or of a country or
territory outside the United Kingdom); or
(ii) is, or corresponds to, any conduct which,
if it all took place in any one part of the United Kingdom, would constitute one
or more criminal offences;
and
(b) the references to an investigation and to
a prosecution include references, respectively, to any investigation outside the
United Kingdom of any crime or suspected crime and to a prosecution brought in
respect of any crime in a country or territory outside the United
Kingdom.
(6) References in this section to taking a
photograph include references to using any process by means of which a visual
image may be produced; and references to photographing a person shall be
construed accordingly.”
93 Photographing of suspects etc.: Northern
Ireland
After Article 64 of the
Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12))
insert—
“64A Photographing of suspects etc.
(1) A person who is detained at a police
station may be photographed—
(a) with the appropriate consent; or
(b) if the appropriate consent is withheld or
it is not practicable to obtain it, without it.
(2) A person proposing to take a photograph of
any person under this Article—
(a) may, for the purpose of doing so, require
the removal of any item or substance worn on or over the whole or any part of
the head or face of the person to be photographed; and
(b) if the requirement is not complied with,
may remove the item or substance himself.
(3) Where a photograph may be taken under this
Article, the only persons entitled to take the photograph are—
(a) constables; and
(b) persons who (without being constables) are
designated for the purposes of this Article by the Chief Constable;
and Article 88 (use of force) applies to the
exercise by a person falling within sub-paragraph (b) of the powers conferred by
the preceding provisions of this Article as it applies to the exercise of those
powers by a constable.
(4) A photograph taken under this
Article—
(a) may be used by, or disclosed to, any
person for any purpose related to the prevention or detection of crime, the
investigation of an offence or the conduct of a prosecution; and
(b) after being so used or disclosed, may be
retained but may not be used or disclosed except for a purpose so
related.
(5) In paragraph (4)—
(a) the reference to crime includes a
reference to any conduct which—
(i) constitutes one or more criminal offences
(whether under the law of a part of the United Kingdom or of a country or
territory outside the United Kingdom); or
(ii) is, or corresponds to, any conduct which,
if it all took place in any one part of the United Kingdom, would constitute one
or more criminal offences;
and
(b) the references to an investigation and to
a prosecution include references, respectively, to any investigation outside the
United Kingdom of any crime or suspected crime and to a prosecution brought in
respect of any crime in a country or territory outside the United
Kingdom.
(6) References in this Article to taking a
photograph include references to using any process by means of which a visual
image may be produced; and references to photographing a person shall be
construed accordingly.”
94 Powers to
require removal of disguises: England and Wales
(1) After section 60 of the Criminal Justice and
Public Order Act 1994 (c. 33) insert—
“60AA Powers to require removal of
disguises
(1) Where—
(a) an authorisation under section 60 is for
the time being in force in relation to any locality for any period, or
(b) an authorisation under subsection (3) that
the powers conferred by subsection (2) shall be exercisable at any place in a
locality is in force for any period,
those powers shall be exercisable at any
place in that locality at any time in that period.
(2) This subsection confers power on any
constable in uniform—
(a) to require any person to remove any item
which the constable reasonably believes that person is wearing wholly or mainly
for the purpose of concealing his identity;
(b) to seize any item which the constable
reasonably believes any person intends to wear wholly or mainly for that
purpose.
(3) If a police officer of or above the rank
of inspector reasonably believes—
(a) that activities may take place in any
locality in his police area that are likely (if they take place) to involve the
commission of offences, and
(b) that it is expedient, in order to prevent
or control the activities, to give an authorisation under this
subsection,
he may give an authorisation that the powers
conferred by this section shall be exercisable at any place within that locality
for a specified period not exceeding twenty-four hours.
(4) If it appears to an officer of or above
the rank of superintendent that it is expedient to do so, having regard to
offences which—
(a) have been committed in connection with the
activities in respect of which the authorisation was given, or
(b) are reasonably suspected to have been so
committed,
he may direct that the authorisation shall
continue in force for a further twenty-four hours.
(5) If an inspector gives an authorisation
under subsection , he must, as soon as it is practicable to do so, cause an
officer of or above the rank of superintendent to be informed.
(6) Any authorisation under this
section—
(a) shall be in writing and signed by the
officer giving it; and
(b) shall specify—
(i) the grounds on which it is given;
(ii) the locality in which the powers conferred
by this section are exercisable;
(iii) the period during which those powers are
exercisable;
and a direction under subsection (4) shall
also be given in writing or, where that is not practicable, recorded in writing
as soon as it is practicable to do so.
(7) A person who fails to remove an item worn
by him when required to do so by a constable in the exercise of his power under
this section shall be liable, on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term
not exceeding one month or to a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale
or both.
(8) The preceding provisions of this section,
so far as they relate to an authorisation by a member of the British Transport
Police Force (including one who for the time being has the same powers and
privileges as a member of a police force for a police area), shall have effect
as if references to a locality or to a locality in his police area were
references to any locality in or in the vicinity of any policed premises, or to
the whole or any part of any such premises.
(9) In this section “British Transport Police
Force” and “policed premises” each has the same meaning as in section 60.
(10) The powers conferred by this section are
in addition to, and not in derogation of, any power otherwise conferred.
(11) This section does not extend to
Scotland.”
(2) In
section 60A(1) of that Act (retention of things seized under section 60), after
“section 60” insert “or 60AA”.
(3) In
section 24(2) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) (arrestable
offences), in paragraph (o), for “section 60(8)(b)” substitute “section
60AA(7)”.
95 Powers to
require removal of disguises: Northern Ireland
(1) In
Part 5 of the Public Order (Northern Ireland) Order 1987 (S.I. 1987/463 (N.I.
7)), before Article 24 insert—
“Temporary
powers to deal with activities in a locality
23A Powers to require removal of
disguises
(1) Where—
(a) an authorisation under paragraph (3) that
the powers conferred by paragraph (2) shall be exercisable at any place in a
locality is in force for any period, or
(b) an authorisation under Article 23B is for
the time being in force in relation to any locality for any period,
those powers shall be exercisable at any
place in that locality at any time in that period.
(2) This paragraph confers power on any
constable in uniform—
(a) to require any person to remove any item
which the constable reasonably believes that person is wearing wholly or mainly
for the purpose of concealing his identity;
(b) to seize any item which the constable
reasonably believes any person intends to wear wholly or mainly for that
purpose.
(3) If a police officer of or above the rank
of inspector reasonably believes—
(a) that activities may take place in any
locality that are likely (if they take place) to involve the commission of
offences, and
(b) that it is expedient, in order to prevent
or control the activities, to give an authorisation under this paragraph,
he may give an authorisation that the powers
conferred by this Article shall be exercisable at any place within that locality
for a specified period not exceeding twenty-four hours.
(4) If it appears to an officer of or above
the rank of superintendent that it is expedient to do so, having regard to
offences which—
(a) have been committed in connection with the
activities in respect of which the authorisation was given, or
(b) are reasonably suspected to have been so
committed,
he may direct that the authorisation shall
continue in force for a further twenty-four hours.
(5) If an officer below the rank of
superintendent gives an authorisation under paragraph (3), he must, as soon as
it is practicable to do so, cause an officer of or above that rank to be
informed.
(6) Any authorisation under this
Article—
(a) shall be in writing and signed by the
officer giving it; and
(b) shall specify—
(i) the grounds on which it is given;
(ii) the locality in which the powers conferred
by this Article are exercisable;
(iii) the period during which those powers are
exercisable;
and a direction under paragraph (4) shall
also be given in writing or, where that is not practicable, recorded in writing
as soon as it is practicable to do so.
(7) A person who fails to remove an item worn
by him when required to do so by a constable in the exercise of his power under
this Article shall be liable, on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term
not exceeding one month or to a fine not exceeding level 3 on the standard scale
or both.
(8) The powers conferred by this Article are
in addition to, and not in derogation of, any power otherwise conferred.”
(2) In
Article 26(2) of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989
(S.I. 1989/1341
(N.I. 12)) (arrestable offences), after sub-paragraph (i) insert—
“(ia) an offence under Article 23A(7) of the
Public Order (Northern Ireland) Order 1987 (S.I. 1987/463 (N.I. 7)) (failing to
comply to requirement to remove disguise).”
Powers of
stop, search and seizure in Northern Ireland
96 Power
to stop and search in anticipation of violence
In the Public Order (Northern
Ireland) Order 1987 (S.I. 1987/463 (N.I. 7)), after Article 23A (which is
inserted by section 95) insert—
“23B Powers to stop and search in
anticipation of violence
(1) If a police officer of or above the rank
of inspector reasonably believes—
(a) that incidents involving serious violence
may take place in any locality, and that it is expedient to give an
authorisation under this Article to prevent or control their occurrence,
or
(b) that persons are carrying dangerous
instruments or offensive weapons in any locality without good reason,
he may give an authorisation that the powers
conferred by this Article are to be exercisable at any place within that
locality for a specified period not exceeding twenty-four hours.
(2) This Article confers power on any
constable in uniform—
(a) to stop any pedestrian and search him or
anything carried by him for offensive weapons or dangerous instruments;
(b) to stop any vehicle and search the
vehicle, its driver and any passenger for offensive weapons or dangerous
instruments;
and a constable may in the exercise of those
powers stop any person or vehicle and make any search he thinks fit whether or
not he has any grounds for suspecting that the person or vehicle is carrying
weapons or dangerous instruments.
(3) If it appears to an officer of or above
the rank of superintendent that it is expedient to do so, having regard to
offences which—
(a) have been committed in connection with the
activities in respect of which the authorisation was given, or
(b) are reasonably suspected to have been so
committed,
he may direct that the authorisation shall
continue in force for a further twenty-four hours.
Expand
All Explanatory Notes (ENs)
(4) If an officer below the rank of
superintendent gives an authorisation under paragraph () he must, as soon as it
is practicable to do so, cause an officer of or above that rank to be
informed.
(5) If in the course of a search under this
Article a constable discovers a dangerous instrument or an article which he has
reasonable grounds for suspecting to be an offensive weapon, he may seize
it.
(6) This Article applies (with the necessary
modifications) to ships, aircraft and hovercraft as it applies to
vehicles.
(7) A person who fails to stop or (as the case
may be) fails to stop a vehicle when required to do so by a constable in the
exercise of his powers under this Article shall be liable on summary conviction
to imprisonment for a term not exceeding one month or to a fine not exceeding
level 3 on the standard scale or both.
(8) Any authorisation under this
Article—
(a) shall be in writing and signed by the
officer giving it; and
(b) shall specify—
(i) the grounds on which it is given;
(ii) the locality in which the powers conferred
by this Article are exercisable;
(iii) the period during which those powers are
exercisable;
and a direction under paragraph () shall also
be given in writing or, where that is not practicable, recorded in writing as
soon as it is practicable to do so.
(9) Where a vehicle is stopped by a constable
under this Article the driver shall be entitled to obtain a written statement
that the vehicle was stopped under the powers conferred by this Article if he
applies for such a statement not later than the end of the period of 12 months
from the day on which the vehicle was stopped.
(10) A person who is searched by a constable
under this Article shall be entitled to obtain a written statement that he was
searched under the powers conferred by this Article if he applies for such a
statement not later than the end of the period of 12 months from the day on
which he was searched.
(11) The powers conferred by this Article are
in addition to, and not in derogation of, any power otherwise conferred.
(12) For the purposes of this Article, a person
carries a dangerous instrument or an offensive weapon if he has it in his
possession.
(13) In this Article—
-
“caravan” has the meaning given
by section 25(1) of the Caravans Act (Northern Ireland) 1963 (N.I. c. 17);
-
“dangerous instrument” means an
instrument which has a blade or is sharply pointed;
-
“offensive weapon” has the
meaning given by Article 22(1);
-
“vehicle” includes a
caravan.”
97 Seized
articles
In the Public Order (Northern
Ireland) Order 1987 (S.I.
1987/463 (N.I. 7)), after Article 23B insert—
“23C Retention and disposal of things
seized under Article 23A and 23B
(1) Anything seized by a constable under
Article 23A or 23B may be retained in accordance with regulations made by the
Secretary of State under this Article.
(2) The Secretary of State may make
regulations regulating the retention and safe keeping, and the disposal and
destruction in prescribed circumstances, of such things.
(3) Regulations made under this Article shall
be subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of
Parliament in like manner as a statutory instrument and section 5 of the
Statutory Instruments Act 1946 (c. 36) shall apply accordingly.”
MoD and
transport police
98 Jurisdiction of MoD police
(1) Section 2 of the Ministry of Defence Police Act
1987 (c. 4) (jurisdiction of members of the Ministry of Defence Police) is
amended as follows.
(2) In
subsection (2) (places where members of Ministry of Defence Police have powers
and privileges of constables), omit paragraph (d) (which is superseded by the
amendment made by subsection (4) of this section).
(3) In
subsection (3) (circumstances in which members of Ministry of Defence Police
have powers and privileges of constables in places in United Kingdom not
mentioned in subsection (2)), after paragraph (b) insert—
“(ba) in connection with offences against
persons within paragraph (b) above, with the incitement of such persons to
commit offences and with offences under the Prevention of Corruption Acts 1889
to 1916 in relation to such persons;”.
(4) After that subsection insert—
“(3A) Where a member of the Ministry of Defence
Police has been requested by a constable of—
(a) the police force for any police
area;
(b) the Police Service of Northern
Ireland;
(c) the British Transport Police Force;
or
(d) the United Kingdom Atomic Energy Authority
Constabulary,
to assist him in the execution of his duties
in relation to a particular incident, investigation or operation, members of the
Ministry of Defence Police shall have the powers and privileges of constables
for the purposes of that incident, investigation or operation but subject to
subsection (3B) below.
(3B) Members of the Ministry of Defence Police
have the powers and privileges of constables for the purposes of an incident,
investigation or operation by virtue of subsection (3A) above—
(a) if the request was made under paragraph
(a) of that subsection by a constable of the police force for a police area,
only in that police area;
(b) if it was made under paragraph (b) of that
subsection, only in Northern Ireland;
(c) if it was made under paragraph (c) of that
subsection, only to the extent that those powers and privileges would in the
circumstances be exercisable for those purposes by a constable of the British
Transport Police Force by virtue of subsection (1A) or, in Scotland, subsection
(4) of section 53 of the British Transport Commission Act 1949 (c. xxix);
or
(d) if it was made under paragraph (d) of that
subsection, only to the extent that those powers and privileges would in the
circumstances be exercisable for those purposes by a constable of the United
Kingdom Atomic Energy Authority Constabulary.
(3C) Members of the Ministry of Defence Police
shall have in any police area the same powers and privileges as constables of
the police force for that police area, and in Northern Ireland the same powers
and privileges as constables of the Police Service of Northern Ireland,—
(a) in relation to persons whom they suspect
on reasonable grounds of having committed, being in the course of committing or
being about to commit an offence; or
(b) if they believe on reasonable grounds that
they need those powers and privileges in order to save life or to prevent or
minimise personal injury.
(3D) But members of the Ministry of Defence
Police have powers and privileges by virtue of subsection (3C) above only
if—
(a) they are in uniform or have with them
documentary evidence that they are members of the Ministry of Defence Police;
and
(b) they believe on reasonable grounds that a
power of a constable which they would not have apart from that subsection ought
to be exercised and that, if it cannot be exercised until they secure the
attendance of or a request under subsection (3A) above by a constable who has
it, the purpose for which they believe it ought to be exercised will be
frustrated or seriously prejudiced.”
(5) In
subsection (4) (territorial waters)—
(a) for
“to (3)” substitute “to (3D)”, and
(b) for
“subsections (1) and (3)” substitute “those subsections”.
(6) In
subsection (5)—
(a) after the definition of “appropriate Gazette”
insert—
““British
Transport Police Force” means the constables appointed under section 53 of the
British Transport Commission Act 1949 (c. xxix);”, and
(b) after the definition of “service authorities”
insert—
““United
Kingdom Atomic Energy Authority Constabulary” means the special constables
appointed under section 3 of the Special Constables Act 1923 (c. 11) on the
nomination of the United Kingdom Atomic Energy Authority;”.
99 Provision of
assistance by MoD police
After section 2 of the
Ministry of Defence Police Act 1987 (c. 4) insert—
“2A Provision of assistance to other
forces
(1) The Chief Constable of the Ministry of
Defence Police may, on the application of the chief officer of any relevant
force, provide constables or other assistance for the purpose of enabling that
force to meet any special demand on its resources.
(2) Where a member of the Ministry of Defence
Police is provided for the assistance of a relevant force under this
section—
(a) he shall be under the direction and
control of the chief officer of that force; and
(b) he shall have the same powers and
privileges as a member of that force.
(3) Constables are not to be regarded as
provided for the assistance of a relevant force under this section in a case
where assistance is provided under section 2 above.
(4) In this section—
100 Jurisdiction of transport police
(1) Where a member of the British Transport Police
Force has been requested by a constable of—
(a) the
police force for any police area,
(b) the
Ministry of Defence Police, or
(c) the
United Kingdom Atomic Energy Authority Constabulary,
(“the requesting force”) to assist him in the
execution of his duties in relation to a particular incident, investigation or
operation, members of the British Transport Police Force have for the purposes
of that incident, investigation or operation the same powers and privileges as
constables of the requesting force.
(2) Members of the British Transport Police Force
have in any police area the same powers and privileges as constables of the
police force for that police area—
(a) in
relation to persons whom they suspect on reasonable grounds of having committed,
being in the course of committing or being about to commit an offence, or
(b) if
they believe on reasonable grounds that they need those powers and privileges in
order to save life or to prevent or minimise personal injury.
(3) But
members of the British Transport Police Force have powers and privileges by
virtue of subsection (2) only if—
(a) they are in uniform or have with them documentary
evidence that they are members of that Force, and
(b) they believe on reasonable grounds that a power
of a constable which they would not have apart from that subsection ought to be
exercised and that, if it cannot be exercised until they secure the attendance
of or a request under subsection (1) by a constable who has it, the purpose for
which they believe it ought to be exercised will be frustrated or seriously
prejudiced.
(4) In
this section—
-
“British Transport Police Force” means
the constables appointed under section 53 of the British Transport Commission
Act 1949 (c. xxix), and
-
“United Kingdom Atomic Energy Authority
Constabulary” means the special constables appointed under section 3 of the
Special Constables Act 1923 (c. 11) on the nomination of the United Kingdom
Atomic Energy Authority.
101 Further
provisions about transport police and MoD police
Schedule 7 contains
amendments relating to the British Transport Police Force and the Ministry of
Defence Police.
Part 11
Retention of Communications
Data
102 Codes
and agreements about the retention of communications data
(1) The
Secretary of State shall issue, and may from time to time revise, a code of
practice relating to the retention by communications providers of communications
data obtained by or held by them.
(2) The
Secretary of State may enter into such agreements as he considers appropriate
with any communications provider about the practice to be followed by that
provider in relation to the retention of communications data obtained by or held
by that provider.
(3) A
code of practice or agreement under this section may contain any such provision
as appears to the Secretary of State to be necessary—
(a) for
the purpose of safeguarding national security; or
(b) for
the purposes of prevention or detection of crime or the prosecution of offenders
which may relate directly or indirectly to national security.
(4) A
failure by any person to comply with a code of practice or agreement under this
section which is for the time being in force shall not of itself render him
liable to any criminal or civil proceedings.
(5) A
code of practice or agreement under this section which is for the time being in
force shall be admissible in evidence in any legal proceedings in which the
question arises whether or not the retention of any communications data is
justified on the grounds that a failure to retain the data would be likely to
prejudice national security, the prevention or detection of crime or the
prosecution of offenders.
103 Procedure
for codes of practice
(1) Before issuing the code of practice under section
102 the Secretary of State shall—
(a) prepare and publish a draft of the code;
and
(b) consider any representations made to him about
the draft;
and the Secretary of State may incorporate in the
code finally issued any modifications made by him to the draft after its
publication.
(2) Before publishing a draft of the code the
Secretary of State shall consult with—
(a) the
Information Commissioner; and
(b) the
communications providers to whom the code will apply.
(3) The
Secretary of State may discharge his duty under subsection (2) to consult with
any communications providers by consulting with a person who appears to him to
represent those providers.
(4) The
Secretary of State shall lay before Parliament the draft code of practice under
section 102 that is prepared and published by him under this section.
(5) The
code of practice issued by the Secretary of State under section 102 shall not be
brought into force except in accordance with an order made by the Secretary of
State by statutory instrument.
(6) An
order under subsection (5) may contain such transitional provisions and savings
as appear to the Secretary of State to be necessary or expedient in connection
with the coming into force of the code to which the order relates.
(7) The
Secretary of State shall not make an order under this section unless a draft of
the order has been laid before Parliament and approved by resolution of each
House.
(8) The
Secretary of State may from time to time—
(a) revise the whole or any part of the code issued
under section 102; and
(b) issue the revised code.
(9) The
preceding provisions of this section shall apply (with appropriate
modifications) in relation to the issue of any revised code under section 102 as
they apply in relation to the first issuing of the code.
(10) Subsection (9) shall not, in the case of a draft
of a revised code, require the Secretary of State to consult under subsection
(2) with any communications providers who would not be affected by the proposed
revisions.
104 Directions
about retention of communications data
(1) If,
after reviewing the operation of any requirements contained in the code of
practice and any agreements under section 102, it appears to the Secretary of
State that it is necessary to do so, he may by order made by statutory
instrument authorise the giving of directions under this section for purposes
prescribed in section 102(3).
(2) Where any order under this section is in force,
the Secretary of State may give such directions as he considers appropriate
about the retention of communications data—
(a) to
communications providers generally;
(b) to
communications providers of a description specified in the direction; or
(c) to
any particular communications providers or provider.
(3) An
order under this section must specify the maximum period for which a
communications provider may be required to retain communications data by any
direction given under this section while the order is in force.
(4) Before giving a direction under this section the
Secretary of State shall consult—
(a) with the communications provider or providers to
whom it will apply; or
(b) except in the case of a direction confined to a
particular provider, with the persons appearing to the Secretary of State to
represent the providers to whom it will apply.
(5) A
direction under this section must be given or published in such manner as the
Secretary of State considers appropriate for bringing it to the attention of the
communications providers or provider to whom it applies.
(6) It
shall be the duty of a communications provider to comply with any direction
under this section that applies to him.
(7) The
duty imposed by subsection (6) shall be enforceable by civil proceedings by the
Secretary of State for an injunction, or for specific performance of a statutory
duty under section 45 of the Court of Session Act 1988 (c. 36), or
for any other appropriate relief.
(8) The
Secretary of State shall not make an order under this section unless a draft of
it has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each
House.
105 Lapsing of
powers in section 104
(1) Section 104 shall cease to have effect at the end
of the initial period unless an order authorising the giving of directions is
made under that section before the end of that period.
(2) Subject to subsection (3), the initial period is
the period of two years beginning with the day on which this Act is
passed.
(3) The
Secretary of State may by order made by statutory instrument extend, or (on one
or more occasions) further extend the initial period.
(4) An
order under subsection (3)—
(a) must be made before the time when the initial
period would end but for the making of the order; and
(b) shall have the effect of extending, or further
extending, that period for the period of two years beginning with that
time.
(5) The
Secretary of State shall not make an order under subsection (3) unless a draft
of it has been laid before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each
House.
106 Arrangements for payments
(1) It
shall be the duty of the Secretary of State to ensure that such arrangements are
in force as he thinks appropriate for authorising or requiring, in such cases as
he thinks fit, the making to communications providers of appropriate
contributions towards the costs incurred by them—
(a) in
complying with the provisions of any code of practice, agreement or direction
under this Part, or
(b) as
a consequence of the retention of any communications data in accordance with any
such provisions.
(2) For
the purpose of complying with his duty under this section, the Secretary of
State may make arrangements for the payments to be made out of money provided by
Parliament.
107 Interpretation of Part 11
(1) In
this Part—
-
“communications data” has the same
meaning as in Chapter 2 of Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act
2000 (c.
23);
-
“communications provider” means a
person who provides a postal service or a telecommunications service;
-
“legal proceedings”, “postal service”
and “telecommunications service” each has the same meaning as in that
Act;
and any reference in this Part to the prevention or
detection of crime shall be construed as if contained in Chapter 2 of Part 1 of
that Act.
(2) References in this Part, in relation to any code
of practice, agreement or direction, to the retention by a communications
provider of any communications data include references to the retention of any
data obtained by that provider before the time when the code was issued, the
agreement made or the direction given, and to data already held by that provider
at that time.
Part 12
Bribery and Corruption
108 Bribery and corruption: foreign officers
etc.
(1) For
the purposes of any common law offence of bribery it is immaterial if the
functions of the person who receives or is offered a reward have no connection
with the United Kingdom and are carried out in a country or territory outside
the United Kingdom.
(2) In
section 1 of the Prevention of Corruption Act 1906 (c. 34) (corrupt transactions
with agents) insert this subsection after subsection (3)—
“(4)
For the purposes of this Act it is
immaterial if—
(a) the principal’s affairs or business have
no connection with the United Kingdom and are conducted in a country or
territory outside the United Kingdom;
(b) the agent’s functions have no connection
with the United Kingdom and are carried out in a country or territory outside
the United Kingdom.”
(3) In
section 7 of the Public Bodies Corrupt Practices Act 1889 (c. 69)
(interpretation relating to corruption in office) in the definition of “public
body” for “but does not include any public body as above defined existing
elsewhere than in the United Kingdom” substitute “and includes any body which
exists in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom and is equivalent to
any body described above”.
(4) In
section 4(2) of the Prevention of Corruption Act 1916 (c. 64) (in the 1889 and
1916 Acts public body includes local and public authorities of all descriptions)
after “descriptions” insert “(including authorities existing in a country or
territory outside the United Kingdom)”.
109 Bribery and
corruption committed outside the UK
(1) This section applies if—
(a) a
national of the United Kingdom or a body incorporated under the law of any part
of the United Kingdom does anything in a country or territory outside the United
Kingdom, and
(b) the
act would, if done in the United Kingdom, constitute a corruption offence (as
defined below).
(2) In
such a case—
(a) the
act constitutes the offence concerned, and
(b) proceedings for the offence may be taken in the
United Kingdom.
(3) These are corruption offences—
(a) any
common law offence of bribery;
(b) the
offences under section 1 of the Public Bodies Corrupt Practices Act 1889 (c. 69)
(corruption in office);
(c) the
first two offences under section 1 of the Prevention of Corruption Act 1906 (c.
34) (bribes obtained by or given to agents).
(4) A
national of the United Kingdom is an individual who is—
(a) a
British citizen, a British Dependent Territories citizen, a British National
(Overseas) or a British Overseas citizen,
(b) a
person who under the British Nationality Act 1981 (c. 61) is a British subject,
or
(c) a
British protected person within the meaning of that Act.
110 Presumption
of corruption not to apply
Section 2 of the Prevention of
Corruption Act 1916 (c. 64) (presumption of corruption in certain cases) is not
to apply in relation to anything which would not be an offence apart from
section 108 or section 109.
Part 13
Miscellaneous
Third pillar of the European Union
111 Implementation of the third pillar
(1) At
any time before 1st July 2002, an authorised Minister may by regulations make
provision—
(a) for
the purpose of implementing any obligation of the United Kingdom created or
arising by or under any third pillar measure or enabling any such obligation to
be implemented,
(b) for
the purpose of enabling any rights enjoyed or to be enjoyed by the United
Kingdom under or by virtue of any third pillar measure to be exercised,
or
(c) for
the purpose of dealing with matters arising out of or related to any such
obligation or rights.
(2) For
the purposes of subsection (1), the following are third pillar measures—
(a) the
1995 Convention drawn up on the basis of Article K.3 of the Treaty on European
Union on Simplified Extradition Procedure between the Member States of the
European Union,
(b) the
1996 Convention drawn up on the basis of Article K.3 of the Treaty on European
Union relating to Extradition between the Member States of the European
Union,
(c) any
framework decision adopted under Article 34 of the Treaty on European Union on
the execution in the European Union of orders freezing property or evidence, on
joint investigation teams, or on combatting terrorism, and
(d) the
Convention on Mutual Assistance in Criminal Matters between the Member States of
the European Union, and the Protocol to that Convention, established in
accordance with Article 34 of the Treaty on European Union.
(3) The
provision that may be made under subsection (1) includes, subject to subsection
(4), any such provision (of any such extent) as might be made by Act of
Parliament.
(4) The
powers conferred by subsection (1) do not include power—
(a) to
make any provision imposing or increasing taxation,
(b) to
make any provision taking effect from a date earlier than that of the making of
the instrument containing the provision,
(c) to
confer any power to legislate by means of orders, rules, regulations or other
subordinate instrument, other than rules of procedure for a court or tribunal,
or
(d) to
create, except in accordance with subsection (6), a criminal offence which is
punishable—
(i)
on conviction on indictment, with
imprisonment for more than two years,
(ii) on
summary conviction, with imprisonment for more than three months,
(iii) on summary conviction, with a fine (not
calculated on a daily basis) of more than level 5 on the standard scale or (for
an offence triable either way) more than the statutory maximum, or
(iv) on
summary conviction, with a fine of more than £100 a day.
(5) Subsection (4)(c) does not preclude the
modification of a power to legislate conferred otherwise than under subsection
(1), or the extension of any such power to purposes of the like nature as those
for which it was conferred, and a power to give directions as to matters of
administration is not to be regarded as a power to legislate within the meaning
of subsection (4)(c).
(6) Subsection (4)(d) does not preclude the creation
of an offence punishable on conviction on indictment with imprisonment for a
term of any length if—
(a) the
offence is one for which a term of that length, a term of at least that length,
or a term within a range of lengths including that length, is required for the
offence by an obligation created or arising by or under any third pillar
measure,
(b) the
offence, if committed in particular circumstances, would be an offence falling
within paragraph (a), or
(c) the
offence is not committed in the United Kingdom but would, if committed in the
United Kingdom, or a part of the United Kingdom, be punishable on conviction on
indictment with imprisonment for a term of that length.
112 Third
pillar: supplemental
(1) “Authorised Minister” in section 111(1) has the
meaning given by subsections (2) and (3).
(2) The
Scottish Ministers are authorised Ministers for any purpose for which powers
under section 111(1) are exercisable within devolved competence (within the
meaning of the Scotland Act 1998 (c. 46)).
(3) For
any other purpose, the following are authorised Ministers—
(a) the
Secretary of State,
(b) the
Lord Chancellor,
(c) the
Treasury,
(d) the
National Assembly for Wales, if designated under subsection (4),
(e) the
First Minister and deputy First Minister acting jointly, a Northern Ireland
Minister or a Northern Ireland department, if the Ministers are, or the Minister
or the department is, designated under subsection (4).
(4) A
designation under this subsection may be made by Order in Council in relation to
any matter or for any purpose, and is subject to any restriction or condition
specified in the Order.
(5) An
Order in Council under subsection (4) is subject to annulment in pursuance of a
resolution of either House of Parliament.
(6) The
power to make regulations under section 111(1)—
(a) in
the case of the First Minister and deputy First Minister acting jointly, a
Northern Ireland Minister or a Northern Ireland Department, is exercisable by
statutory rule for the purposes of the Statutory Rules (Northern Ireland) Order
1979 (S.I.1979/1573 (N.I. 12)),
(b) in
any other case, is exercisable by statutory instrument.
(7) No
regulations may be made under section 111(1) unless a draft of the regulations
has been laid before and approved by a resolution of each House of
Parliament.
(8) Subsection (7) has effect, so far as it relates
to the exercise of powers under section 111(1) by the Scottish Ministers, as if
the reference to each House of Parliament were a reference to the Scottish
Parliament.
(9) Subsection (7) does not apply to a statutory
instrument containing regulations made by the National Assembly for Wales unless
the statutory instrument contains regulations—
(a) made by the Secretary of State, the Lord
Chancellor or the Treasury (whether or not jointly with the Assembly),
(b) relating to an English border area, or
(c) relating to a cross-border body (and not relating
only to the exercise of functions, or the carrying on of activities, by the body
in or with respect to Wales or a part of Wales);
and in this subsection expressions used in the
Government of Wales Act 1998 (c. 38) have the same meaning as in that Act.
(10) Subsection (7) has effect, so far as it relates
to the exercise of powers under section 111(1) by the First Minister and deputy
First Minister acting jointly, a Northern Ireland Minister or a Northern Ireland
department, as if the reference to each House of Parliament were a reference to
the Northern Ireland Assembly.
Dangerous
substances
113 Use of
noxious substances or things to cause harm and intimidate
(1) A
person who takes any action which—
(a) involves the use of a noxious substance or other
noxious thing;
(b) has
or is likely to have an effect falling within subsection (2); and
(c) is
designed to influence the government or to intimidate the public or a section of
the public,
is guilty of an offence.
(2) Action has an effect falling within this
subsection if it—
(a) causes serious violence against a person anywhere
in the world;
(b) causes serious damage to real or personal
property anywhere in the world;
(c) endangers human life or creates a serious risk to
the health or safety of the public or a section of the public; or
(d) induces in members of the public the fear that
the action is likely to endanger their lives or create a serious risk to their
health or safety;
but any effect on the person taking the action is to
be disregarded.
(3) A
person who—
(a) makes a threat that he or another will take any
action which constitutes an offence under subsection (1); and
(b) intends thereby to induce in a person anywhere in
the world the fear that the threat is likely to be carried out,
is guilty of an offence.
(4) A
person guilty of an offence under this section is liable—
(a) on
summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or a
fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both); and
(b) on
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding fourteen
years or a fine (or both).
(5) In
this section—
-
“the government” means the government
of the United Kingdom, of a part of the United Kingdom or of a country other
than the United Kingdom; and
-
“the public” includes the public of a
country other than the United Kingdom.
114 Hoaxes
involving noxious substances or things
(1) A
person is guilty of an offence if he—
(a) places any substance or other thing in any place;
or
(b) sends any substance or other thing from one place
to another (by post, rail or any other means whatever);
with the intention of inducing in a person anywhere
in the world a belief that it is likely to be (or contain) a noxious substance
or other noxious thing and thereby endanger human life or create a serious risk
to human health.
(2) A
person is guilty of an offence if he communicates any information which he knows
or believes to be false with the intention of inducing in a person anywhere in
the world a belief that a noxious substance or other noxious thing is likely to
be present (whether at the time the information is communicated or later) in any
place and thereby endanger human life or create a serious risk to human
health.
(3) A
person guilty of an offence under this section is liable—
(a) on
summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or a
fine not exceeding the statutory maximum (or both); and
(b) on
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding seven years
or a fine (or both).
115 Sections
113 and 114: supplementary
(1) For
the purposes of sections 113 and 114 “substance” includes any biological agent
and any other natural or artificial substance (whatever its form, origin or
method of production).
(2) For
a person to be guilty of an offence under section 113(3) or 114 it is not
necessary for him to have any particular person in mind as the person in whom he
intends to induce the belief in question.
Intelligence Services Act 1994
116 Amendments of Intelligence Services Act
1994
(1) In
section 7 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (c. 13)
(authorisation of acts outside the British Islands), in subsection (3) —
(a) in
paragraphs (a) and (b)(i), after “the Intelligence Service” insert, in each
case, “or GCHQ”; and
(b) in
paragraph (c), after “2(2)(a)” insert “or 4(2)(a)”.
(2) After subsection (8) of that section
insert—
“(9)
For the purposes of this section the
reference in subsection (1) to an act done outside the British Islands includes
a reference to any act which—
(a) is done in the British Islands; but
(b) is or is intended to be done in relation
to apparatus that is believed to be outside the British Islands, or in relation
to anything appearing to originate from such apparatus;
and in this subsection “apparatus” has the
same meaning as in the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23).”
(3) In
section 11(1A) of that Act (prevention and detection of crime to have the same
meaning as in Chapter 1 of Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act
2000), for the words from “for the purposes of this Act” to the end of the
subsection substitute—
“(a)
for the purposes of section 3 above,
as it applies for the purposes of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of that Act; and
(b) for the other purposes of this Act, as it
applies for the purposes of the provisions of that Act not contained in that
Chapter.”
Terrorism
Act 2000
117 Information about acts of terrorism
(1) The
Terrorism Act 2000
(c. 11) is amended as follows.
(2) After section 38 insert—
“38B Information about acts of
terrorism
(1) This section applies where a person has
information which he knows or believes might be of material assistance—
(a) in preventing the commission by another
person of an act of terrorism, or
(b) in securing the apprehension, prosecution
or conviction of another person, in the United Kingdom, for an offence involving
the commission, preparation or instigation of an act of terrorism.
(2) The person commits an offence if he does
not disclose the information as soon as reasonably practicable in accordance
with subsection (3).
(3) Disclosure is in accordance with this
subsection if it is made—
(a) in England and Wales, to a
constable,
(b) in Scotland, to a constable, or
(c) in Northern Ireland, to a constable or a
member of Her Majesty’s forces.
(4) It is a defence for a person charged with
an offence under subsection (2) to prove that he had a reasonable excuse for not
making the disclosure.
(5) A person guilty of an offence under this
section shall be liable—
(a) on conviction on indictment, to
imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years, or to a fine or to both,
or
(b) on summary conviction, to imprisonment for
a term not exceeding six months, or to a fine not exceeding the statutory
maximum or to both.
(6) Proceedings for an offence under this
section may be taken, and the offence may for the purposes of those proceedings
be treated as having been committed, in any place where the person to be charged
is or has at any time been since he first knew or believed that the information
might be of material assistance as mentioned in subsection (1).”
(3) In
section 39(3) (disclosure of information etc.), after “21” insert “or 38B”.
118 Port and
airport controls for domestic travel
(1) Schedule 7 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (port and
border controls) is amended as follows.
(2) In
paragraph 2(2)(b), at the end insert “or his travelling by air within Great
Britain or within Northern Ireland.”
(3) In
paragraph 2(3), for “in Great Britain or Northern Ireland.” substitute “at any
place in Great Britain or Northern Ireland (whether from within or outside Great
Britain or Northern Ireland).”
(4) For
paragraph 9(2) substitute—
“(2)
This paragraph applies to—
(a) goods which have arrived in or are about
to leave Great Britain or Northern Ireland on a ship or vehicle, and
(b) goods which have arrived at or are about
to leave any place in Great Britain or Northern Ireland on an aircraft (whether
the place they have come from or are going to is within or outside Great Britain
or Northern Ireland).”
119 Passenger
information
(1) Paragraph 17 of Schedule 7 to the Terrorism Act
2000 (c. 11)
(port and border controls: passenger information) is amended as follows.
(2) For
sub-paragraph (1) substitute—
“(1)
This paragraph applies to a ship or
aircraft which—
(a) arrives or is expected to arrive in any
place in the United Kingdom (whether from another place in the United Kingdom or
from outside the United Kingdom), or
(b) leaves or is expected to leave the United
Kingdom.”
(3) In
sub-paragraph (4)—
(a) omit the “or” at the end of paragraph (b),
and
(b) after paragraph (c) add— “, or
(d) to goods.”
120 Weapons
training for terrorists
(1) In
section 54(1) and (2) of the Terrorism Act 2000 (weapons training for
terrorists), after paragraph (a) insert—
“(aa) radioactive material or weapons designed
or adapted for the discharge of any radioactive material,”.
(2) In
section 55 of that Act (definitions)—
(a) for
the definition of “biological weapon” substitute—
““biological
weapon” means a biological agent or toxin (within the meaning of the Biological
Weapons Act 1974) in a form capable of use for hostile purposes or anything to
which section 1(1)(b) of that Act applies,”;
(b) after the definition of “chemical weapon”
insert—
““radioactive material” means radioactive material
capable of endangering life or causing harm to human health,”; and
(c) the
definition of “nuclear weapon” shall cease to have effect.
121 Crown Court
judges: Northern Ireland
(1) The
Terrorism Act 2000
(c. 11) is amended as follows.
(2) In
paragraph 18 of Schedule 5 (terrorist investigations: application to Northern
Ireland)—
(a) omit paragraph (e);
(b) in
paragraph (g) for “county court judge” substitute “Crown Court judge”.
(3) In
paragraph 20 of that Schedule (powers of Secretary of State), in sub-paragraphs
(2) and (3)(a) for “county court judge” substitute “Crown Court judge”.
(4) In
paragraph 3(c) of Schedule 6 (persons by whom financial information orders may
be made) for “county court judge” substitute “Crown Court judge”.
Expand
All Explanatory Notes (ENs)
Part 14
Supplemental
122 Review
of Act
(1) The
Secretary of State shall appoint a committee to conduct a review of this
Act.
(2) He
must seek to secure that at any time there are not fewer than seven members of
the committee.
(3) A
person may be a member of the committee only if he is a member of the Privy
Council.
(4) The
committee shall complete the review and send a report to the Secretary of State
not later than the end of two years beginning with the day on which this Act is
passed.
(5) The
Secretary of State shall lay a copy of the report before Parliament as soon as
is reasonably practicable.
(6) The
Secretary of State may make payments to persons appointed as members of the
committee.
123 Effect of
report
(1) A
report under section 122(4) may specify any provision of this Act as a provision
to which this section applies.
(2) Subject to subsection (3), any provision
specified under subsection (1) ceases to have effect at the end of the period of
6 months beginning with the day on which the report is laid before Parliament
under section 122(5).
(3) Subsection (2) does not apply if before the end
of that period a motion has been made in each House of Parliament considering
the report.
124 Consequential and supplementary provision
(1) A
Minister of the Crown may by order make such incidental, consequential,
transitional or supplemental provision as he thinks necessary or expedient for
the general purposes, or any particular purpose, of this Act or in consequence
of any provision made by or under this Act or for giving full effect to this Act
or any such provision.
(2) An
order under this section may, in particular, make provision—
(a) for
applying (with or without modifications) or amending, repealing or revoking any
provision of or made under an Act passed before this Act or in the same
Session,
(b) for
making savings, or additional savings, from the effect of any repeal or
revocation made by or under this Act.
(3) Amendments made under this section are in
addition, and without prejudice, to those made by or under any other provision
of this Act.
(4) No
other provision of this Act restricts the powers conferred by this
section.
(5) An
order under this section may make different provision for different
purposes.
(6) An
order under this section shall be made by statutory instrument which shall be
subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of
Parliament.
(7) In
this Part, “Minister of the Crown” has the same meaning as in the Ministers of
the Crown Act 1975 (c. 26).
125 Repeals and
revocation
The enactments mentioned in
Schedule 8 are repealed or revoked to the extent specified in the second column
of that Schedule.
126 Expenses
There shall be paid out of money
provided by Parliament—
(a) any
expenditure incurred by a Minister of the Crown by virtue of this Act,
and
(b) any
increase attributable to this Act in the sums payable out of money so provided
under any other enactment.
127 Commencement
(1) Except as provided in subsections (2) to (4),
this Act comes into force on such day as the Secretary of State may appoint by
order.
(2) The
following provisions come into force on the day on which this Act is
passed—
(a) Parts 2 to 6,
(b) Part 8, except section 78,
(c) Part 9, except sections 84 and 87,
(d) sections 89 to 97,
(e) sections 98 to 100, except so far as they extend
to Scotland,
(f) section 101 and Schedule 7, except so far as they
relate to the entries in respect of the Police (Scotland) Act 1967,
(g) Part 11,
(h) Part 13, except section 121,
(i) this Part, except section 125 and Schedule 8 so
far as they relate to the entries—
(i) in
Part 1 of Schedule 8,
(ii) in
Part 5 of Schedule 8, in respect of the Nuclear Installations Act 1965,
(iii) in Part 6 of Schedule 8, in respect of the
British Transport Commission Act 1962 and the Ministry of Defence Police Act
1987, so far as those entries extend to Scotland,
(iv) in
Part 7 of Schedule 8, in respect of Schedule 5 to the Terrorism Act 2000.
(3) The
following provisions come into force at the end of the period of two months
beginning with the day on which this Act is passed—
(a) section 84,
(b) section 87.
(4) The
following provisions come into force on such day as the Secretary of State and
the Scottish Ministers, acting jointly, may appoint by order—
(a) sections 98 to 100, so far as they extend to
Scotland,
(b) section 101 and Schedule 7, so far as they relate
to the entries in respect of the Police (Scotland) Act 1967, and
(c) section 125 and Schedule 8, so far as they relate
to the entries in Part 6 of Schedule 8 in respect of the British Transport
Commission Act 1962 and the Ministry of Defence Police Act 1987, so far as those
entries extend to Scotland.
(5) Different days may be appointed for different
provisions and for different purposes.
(6) An
order under this section—
(a) must be made by statutory instrument, and
(b) may
contain incidental, supplemental, consequential or transitional
provision.
128 Extent
(1) The
following provisions do not extend to Scotland—
(a) Part 5,
(b) Part 12,
(c) in
Part 6 of Schedule 8, the repeals in the Criminal Justice and Police Order Act
1994 and in the Crime and Disorder Act 1998.
(2) The
following provisions do not extend to Northern Ireland—
(a) section 76,
(b) section 100.
(3) Except as provided in subsections (1) and (2), an
amendment, repeal or revocation in this Act has the same extent as the enactment
amended, repealed or revoked.
129 Short
title
This Act may be cited as the
Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001.
SCHEDULES
Section 1
SCHEDULE 1 Forfeiture of terrorist
cash
Part
1 Introductory
Terrorist
cash
1 (1) This
Schedule applies to cash (“terrorist cash”) which—
(a) is
within subsection (1)(a) or (b) of section 1, or
(b) is
property earmarked as terrorist property.
(2) “Cash” means—
(a) coins and notes in any currency,
(b) postal orders,
(c) cheques of any kind, including travellers'
cheques,
(d) bankers' drafts,
(e) bearer bonds and bearer shares,
found at any place in the United Kingdom.
(3) Cash also includes any kind of monetary
instrument which is found at any place in the United Kingdom, if the instrument
is specified by the Secretary of State by order.
(4) The
power to make an order under sub-paragraph (3) is exercisable by statutory
instrument, which is subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either
House of Parliament.
Part
2 Seizure and
detention
Seizure of
cash
2 (1) An
authorised officer may seize any cash if he has reasonable grounds for
suspecting that it is terrorist cash.
(2) An
authorised officer may also seize cash part of which he has reasonable grounds
for suspecting to be terrorist cash if it is not reasonably practicable to seize
only that part.
Detention of seized
cash
3 (1) While the
authorised officer continues to have reasonable grounds for his suspicion, cash
seized under this Schedule may be detained initially for a period of 48
hours.
(2) The
period for which the cash or any part of it may be detained may be extended by
an order made by a magistrates' court or (in Scotland) the sheriff; but the
order may not authorise the detention of any of the cash—
(a) beyond the end of the period of three months
beginning with the date of the order, and
(b) in
the case of any further order under this paragraph, beyond the end of the period
of two years beginning with the date of the first order.
(3) A
justice of the peace may also exercise the power of a magistrates' court to make
the first order under sub-paragraph (2) extending the period.
(4) An
order under sub-paragraph (2) must provide for notice to be given to persons
affected by it.
(5) An
application for an order under sub-paragraph (2)—
(a) in
relation to England and Wales and Northern Ireland, may be made by the
Commissioners of Customs and Excise or an authorised officer,
(b) in
relation to Scotland, may be made by a procurator fiscal,
and the court, sheriff or justice may make the order
if satisfied, in relation to any cash to be further detained, that one of the
following conditions is met.
(6) The
first condition is that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting that the
cash is intended to be used for the purposes of terrorism and that
either—
(a) its
continued detention is justified while its intended use is further investigated
or consideration is given to bringing (in the United Kingdom or elsewhere)
proceedings against any person for an offence with which the cash is connected,
or
(b) proceedings against any person for an offence
with which the cash is connected have been started and have not been
concluded.
(7) The
second condition is that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting that the
cash consists of resources of an organisation which is a proscribed organisation
and that either—
(a) its
continued detention is justified while investigation is made into whether or not
it consists of such resources or consideration is given to bringing (in the
United Kingdom or elsewhere) proceedings against any person for an offence with
which the cash is connected, or
(b) proceedings against any person for an offence
with which the cash is connected have been started and have not been
concluded.
(8) The
third condition is that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting that the
cash is property earmarked as terrorist property and that either—
(a) its
continued detention is justified while its derivation is further investigated or
consideration is given to bringing (in the United Kingdom or elsewhere)
proceedings against any person for an offence with which the cash is connected,
or
(b) proceedings against any person for an offence
with which the cash is connected have been started and have not been
concluded.
Payment of detained
cash into an account
4 (1) If cash
is detained under this Schedule for more than 48 hours, it is to be held in an
interest-bearing account and the interest accruing on it is to be added to it on
its forfeiture or release.
(2) In
the case of cash seized under paragraph 2(2), the authorised officer must, on
paying it into the account, release so much of the cash then held in the account
as is not attributable to terrorist cash.
(3) Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply if the cash is
required as evidence of an offence or evidence in proceedings under this
Schedule.
Release of detained
cash
5 (1) This
paragraph applies while any cash is detained under this Schedule.
(2) A
magistrates' court or (in Scotland) the sheriff may direct the release of the
whole or any part of the cash if satisfied, on an application by the person from
whom it was seized, that the conditions in paragraph 3 for the detention of cash
are no longer met in relation to the cash to be released.
(3) A
authorised officer or (in Scotland) a procurator fiscal may, after notifying the
magistrates' court, sheriff or justice under whose order cash is being detained,
release the whole or any part of it if satisfied that the detention of the cash
to be released is no longer justified.
(4) But
cash is not to be released—
(a) if
an application for its forfeiture under paragraph 6, or for its release under
paragraph 9, is made, until any proceedings in pursuance of the application
(including any proceedings on appeal) are concluded,
(b) if
(in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) proceedings are started against any person
for an offence with which the cash is connected, until the proceedings are
concluded.
Part
3 Forfeiture
Forfeiture
6 (1) While
cash is detained under this Schedule, an application for the forfeiture of the
whole or any part of it may be made—
(a) to
a magistrates' court by the Commissioners of Customs and Excise or an authorised
officer,
(b) (in
Scotland) to the sheriff by the Scottish Ministers.
(2) The
court or sheriff may order the forfeiture of the cash or any part of it if
satisfied that the cash or part is terrorist cash.
(3) In
the case of property earmarked as terrorist property which belongs to joint
tenants one of whom is an excepted joint owner, the order may not apply to so
much of it as the court or sheriff thinks is attributable to the excepted joint
owner’s share.
(4) An
excepted joint owner is a joint tenant who obtained the property in
circumstances in which it would not (as against him) be earmarked; and
references to his share of the earmarked property are to so much of the property
as would have been his if the joint tenancy had been severed.
Appeal against
forfeiture
7 (1) Any party
to proceedings in which an order is made under paragraph 6 (“a forfeiture
order”) who is aggrieved by the order may appeal—
(a) in
relation to England and Wales, to the Crown Court,
(b) in
relation to Scotland, to the Court of Session,
(c) in
relation to Northern Ireland, to a county court.
(2) An
appeal under sub-paragraph (1) must be made—
(a) within the period of 30 days beginning with the
date on which the order is made, or
(b) if
sub-paragraph (6) applies, before the end of the period of 30 days beginning
with the date on which the order under section 3(3)(b) of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)
referred to in that sub-paragraph comes into force.
(3) The
appeal is to be by way of a rehearing.
(4) The
court hearing the appeal may make any order it thinks appropriate.
(5) If
the court upholds the appeal, it may order the release of the cash.
(6) Where a successful application for a forfeiture
order relies (wholly or partly) on the fact that an organisation is proscribed,
this sub-paragraph applies if—
(a) a
deproscription appeal under section 5 of the Terrorism Act 2000 is allowed in
respect of the organisation,
(b) an
order is made under section 3(3)(b) of that Act in respect of the organisation
in accordance with an order of the Proscribed Organisations Appeal Commission
under section 5(4) of that Act (and, if the order is made in reliance on section
123(5) of that Act, a resolution is passed by each House of Parliament under
section 123(5)(b)), and
(c) the
forfeited cash was seized under this Schedule on or after the date of the
refusal to deproscribe against which the appeal under section 5 of that Act was
brought.
Application of
forfeited cash
8 (1) Cash
forfeited under this Schedule, and any accrued interest on it—
(a) if
forfeited by a magistrates' court in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, is
to be paid into the Consolidated Fund,
(b) if
forfeited by the sheriff, is to be paid into the Scottish Consolidated
Fund.
(2) But
it is not to be paid in—
(a) before the end of the period within which an
appeal under paragraph 7 may be made, or
(b) if
a person appeals under that paragraph, before the appeal is determined or
otherwise disposed of.
Part
4 Miscellaneous
Victims
9 (1) A person
who claims that any cash detained under this Schedule, or any part of it,
belongs to him may apply to a magistrates' court or (in Scotland) the sheriff
for the cash or part to be released to him.
(2) The
application may be made in the course of proceedings under paragraph 3 or 6 or
at any other time.
(3) If
it appears to the court or sheriff concerned that—
(a) the
applicant was deprived of the cash claimed, or of property which it represents,
by criminal conduct,
(b) the
property he was deprived of was not, immediately before he was deprived of it,
property obtained by or in return for criminal conduct and nor did it then
represent such property, and
(c) the
cash claimed belongs to him,
the court or sheriff may order the cash to be
released to the applicant.
Compensation
10 (1) If no
forfeiture order is made in respect of any cash detained under this Schedule,
the person to whom the cash belongs or from whom it was seized may make an
application to the magistrates' court or (in Scotland) the sheriff for
compensation.
(2) If,
for any period after the initial detention of the cash for 48 hours, the cash
was not held in an interest-bearing account while detained, the court or sheriff
may order an amount of compensation to be paid to the applicant.
(3) The
amount of compensation to be paid under sub-paragraph (2) is the amount the
court or sheriff thinks would have been earned in interest in the period in
question if the cash had been held in an interest-bearing account.
(4) If
the court or sheriff is satisfied that, taking account of any interest to be
paid under this Schedule or any amount to be paid under sub-paragraph (2), the
applicant has suffered loss as a result of the detention of the cash and that
the circumstances are exceptional, the court or sheriff may order compensation
(or additional compensation) to be paid to him .
(5) The
amount of compensation to be paid under sub-paragraph (4) is the amount the
court or sheriff thinks reasonable, having regard to the loss suffered and any
other relevant circumstances.
(6) If
the cash was seized by a customs officer, the compensation is to be paid by the
Commissioners of Customs and Excise.
(7) If
the cash was seized by a constable, the compensation is to be paid as
follows—
(a) in
the case of a constable of a police force in England and Wales, it is to be paid
out of the police fund from which the expenses of the police force are
met,
(b) in
the case of a constable of a police force in Scotland, it is to be paid by the
police authority or joint police board for the police area for which that force
is maintained,
(c) in
the case of a police officer within the meaning of the Police (Northern Ireland)
Act 2000 (c.
32), it is to be paid out of money provided by the Chief Constable.
(8) If
the cash was seized by an immigration officer, the compensation is to be paid by
the Secretary of State.
(9) If
a forfeiture order is made in respect only of a part of any cash detained under
this Schedule, this paragraph has effect in relation to the other part.
(10) This paragraph does not apply if the court or
sheriff makes an order under paragraph 9.
Part
5 Property earmarked as
terrorist property
Property
obtained through terrorism
11 (1) A person
obtains property through terrorism if he obtains property by or in return for
acts of terrorism, or acts carried out for the purposes of terrorism.
(2) In
deciding whether any property was obtained through terrorism—
(a) it
is immaterial whether or not any money, goods or services were provided in order
to put the person in question in a position to carry out the acts,
(b) it
is not necessary to show that the act was of a particular kind if it is shown
that the property was obtained through acts of one of a number of kinds, each of
which would have been an act of terrorism, or an act carried out for the
purposes of terrorism.
Property earmarked
as terrorist property
12 (1) Property
obtained through terrorism is earmarked as terrorist property.
(2) But
if property obtained through terrorism has been disposed of (since it was so
obtained), it is earmarked as terrorist property only if it is held by a person
into whose hands it may be followed.
(3) Earmarked property obtained through terrorism may
be followed into the hands of a person obtaining it on a disposal by—
(a) the
person who obtained the property through terrorism, or
(b) a
person into whose hands it may (by virtue of this sub-paragraph) be
followed.
Tracing
property
13 (1) Where
property obtained through terrorism (“the original property”) is or has been
earmarked as terrorist property, property which represents the original property
is also earmarked.
(2) If
a person enters into a transaction by which—
(a) he
disposes of earmarked property, whether the original property or property which
(by virtue of this Part) represents the original property, and
(b) he
obtains other property in place of it,
the other property represents the original
property.
(3) If
a person disposes of earmarked property which represents the original property,
the property may be followed into the hands of the person who obtains it (and it
continues to represent the original property).
Mixing
property
14 (1) Sub-paragraph (2) applies if a person’s property
which is earmarked as terrorist property is mixed with other property (whether
his property or another's).
(2) The
portion of the mixed property which is attributable to the property earmarked as
terrorist property represents the property obtained through terrorism.
(3) Property earmarked as terrorist property is mixed
with other property if (for example) it is used—
(a) to
increase funds held in a bank account,
(b) in
part payment for the acquisition of an asset,
(c) for
the restoration or improvement of land,
(d) by
a person holding a leasehold interest in the property to acquire the
freehold.
Accruing
profits
15 (1) This
paragraph applies where a person who has property earmarked as terrorist
property obtains further property consisting of profits accruing in respect of
the earmarked property.
(2) The
further property is to be treated as representing the property obtained through
terrorism.
General
exceptions
16 (1) If—
(a) a
person disposes of property earmarked as terrorist property, and
(b) the
person who obtains it on the disposal does so in good faith, for value and
without notice that it was earmarked,
the property may not be followed into that person’s
hands and, accordingly, it ceases to be earmarked.
(2) If—
(a) in
pursuance of a judgment in civil proceedings (whether in the United Kingdom or
elsewhere), the defendant makes a payment to the claimant or the claimant
otherwise obtains property from the defendant,
(b) the
claimant’s claim is based on the defendant’s criminal conduct, and
(c) apart from this sub-paragraph, the sum received,
or the property obtained, by the claimant would be earmarked as terrorist
property,
the property ceases to be earmarked.
In relation to Scotland, “claimant” and “defendant”
are to be read as “pursuer” and “defender”; and, in relation to Northern
Ireland, “claimant” is to be read as “plaintiff”.
(3) If—
(a) a
payment is made to a person in pursuance of a compensation order under Article
14 of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 1994 (S.I. 1994/2795 (N.I. 15)),
section 249 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46) or
section 130 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6),
and
(b) apart from this sub-paragraph, the sum received
would be earmarked as terrorist property,
the property ceases to be earmarked.
(4) If—
(a) a
payment is made to a person in pursuance of a restitution order under section 27
of the Theft Act (Northern Ireland) 1969 (c. 16 (NI)) or section 148(2) of the Powers of
Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 or a person otherwise obtains any property
in pursuance of such an order, and
(b) apart from this sub-paragraph, the sum received,
or the property obtained, would be earmarked as terrorist property,
the property ceases to be earmarked.
(5) If—
(a) in
pursuance of an order made by the court under section 382(3) or 383(5) of the
Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8)
(restitution orders), an amount is paid to or distributed among any persons in
accordance with the court’s directions, and
(b) apart from this sub-paragraph, the sum received
by them would be earmarked as terrorist property,
the property ceases to be earmarked.
(6) If—
(a) in
pursuance of a requirement of the Financial Services Authority under section
384(5) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8) (power
of authority to require restitution), an amount is paid to or distributed among
any persons, and
(b) apart from this sub-paragraph, the sum received
by them would be earmarked as terrorist property,
the property ceases to be earmarked.
(7) Where—
(a) a
person enters into a transaction to which paragraph 13(2) applies, and
(b) the
disposal is one to which sub-paragraph (1) applies,
this paragraph does not affect the question whether
(by virtue of paragraph 13(2)) any property obtained on the transaction in place
of the property disposed of is earmarked.
Part
6 Interpretation
Property
17 (1) Property
is all property wherever situated and includes—
(a) money,
(b) all
forms of property, real or personal, heritable or moveable,
(c) things in action and other intangible or
incorporeal property.
(2) Any
reference to a person’s property (whether expressed as a reference to the
property he holds or otherwise) is to be read as follows.
(3) In
relation to land, it is a reference to any interest which he holds in the
land.
(4) In
relation to property other than land, it is a reference—
(a) to
the property (if it belongs to him), or
(b) to
any other interest which he holds in the property.
Obtaining and
disposing of property
18 (1) References to a person disposing of his property
include a reference—
(a) to
his disposing of a part of it, or
(b) to
his granting an interest in it,
(or to both); and references to the property
disposed of are to any property obtained on the disposal.
(2) If
a person grants an interest in property of his which is earmarked as terrorist
property, the question whether the interest is also earmarked is to be
determined in the same manner as it is on any other disposal of earmarked
property.
(3) A
person who makes a payment to another is to be treated as making a disposal of
his property to the other, whatever form the payment takes.
(4) Where a person’s property passes to another under
a will or intestacy or by operation of law, it is to be treated as disposed of
by him to the other.
(5) A
person is only to be treated as having obtained his property for value in a case
where he gave unexecuted consideration if the consideration has become executed
consideration.
General
interpretation
19 (1) In this
Schedule—
-
“authorised officer” means a constable,
a customs officer or an immigration officer,
-
“cash” has the meaning given by
paragraph 1,
-
“constable”, in relation to Northern
Ireland, means a police officer within the meaning of the Police (Northern
Ireland) Act 2000
(c. 32),
-
“criminal conduct” means conduct which
constitutes an offence in any part of the United Kingdom, or would constitute an
offence in any part of the United Kingdom if it occurred there,
-
“customs officer” means an officer
commissioned by the Commissioners of Customs and Excise under section 6(3) of
the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979 (c. 2),
-
“forfeiture order” has the meaning
given by paragraph 7,
-
“immigration officer” means a person
appointed as an immigration officer under paragraph 1 of Schedule 2 to the
Immigration Act 1971 (c. 77),
-
“interest”, in relation to land—
(a)
in the case of land in England and
Wales or Northern Ireland, means any legal estate and any equitable interest or
power,
(b)
in the case of land in Scotland, means
any estate, interest, servitude or other heritable right in or over land,
including a heritable security,
-
“interest”, in relation to property
other than land, includes any right (including a right to possession of the
property),
-
“part”, in relation to property,
includes a portion,
-
“property obtained through terrorism”
has the meaning given by paragraph 11,
-
“property earmarked as terrorist
property” is to be read in accordance with Part 5,
-
“proscribed organisation” has the same
meaning as in the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11),
-
“terrorism” has the same meaning as in
the Terrorism Act 2000,
-
“terrorist cash” has the meaning given
by paragraph 1,
-
“value” means market
value.
(2) Paragraphs 17 and 18 and the following provisions
apply for the purposes of this Schedule.
(3) For
the purpose of deciding whether or not property was earmarked as terrorist
property at any time (including times before commencement), it is to be assumed
that this Schedule was in force at that and any other relevant time.
(4) References to anything done or intended to be
done for the purposes of terrorism include anything done or intended to be done
for the benefit of a proscribed organisation.
(5) An
organisation’s resources include any cash which is applied or made available, or
is to be applied or made available, for use by the organisation.
(6) Proceedings against any person for an offence are
concluded when—
(a) the
person is convicted or acquitted,
(b) the
prosecution is discontinued or, in Scotland, the trial diet is deserted
simpliciter, or
(c) the
jury is discharged without a finding.
SCHEDULE 2 Terrorist property:
amendments
Part
1 Account monitoring
orders
1 (1) The
Terrorism Act 2000 is amended as follows.
(2) The
following section is inserted after section 38—
“38A Account monitoring orders
Schedule 6A (account
monitoring orders) shall have effect.”
(3) The
following Schedule is inserted after Schedule 6—
“SCHEDULE
6A Account monitoring orders
Introduction
1 (1) This paragraph applies for the purposes of
this Schedule.
(2) A judge is—
(a) a Circuit judge, in England and
Wales;
(b) the sheriff, in Scotland;
(c) a Crown Court judge, in Northern
Ireland.
(3) The court is—
(a) the Crown Court, in England and Wales or
Northern Ireland;
(b) the sheriff, in Scotland.
(4) An appropriate officer is—
(a) a police officer, in England and Wales or
Northern Ireland;
(b) the procurator fiscal, in Scotland.
(5) “Financial institution” has the same
meaning as in Schedule 6.
Account monitoring
orders
2 (1) A judge may, on an application made to him
by an appropriate officer, make an account monitoring order if he is satisfied
that—
(a) the order is sought for the purposes of a
terrorist investigation,
(b) the tracing of terrorist property is
desirable for the purposes of the investigation, and
(c) the order will enhance the effectiveness
of the investigation.
(2) The application for an account monitoring
order must state that the order is sought against the financial institution
specified in the application in relation to information which—
(a) relates to an account or accounts held at
the institution by the person specified in the application (whether solely or
jointly with another), and
(b) is of the description so specified.
(3) The application for an account monitoring
order may specify information relating to—
(a) all accounts held by the person specified
in the application for the order at the financial institution so
specified,
(b) a particular description, or particular
descriptions, of accounts so held, or
(c) a particular account, or particular
accounts, so held.
(4) An account monitoring order is an order
that the financial institution specified in the application for the order
must—
(a) for the period specified in the
order,
(b) in the manner so specified,
(c) at or by the time or times so specified,
and
(d) at the place or places so
specified,
provide information of the description
specified in the application to an appropriate officer.
(5) The period stated in an account monitoring
order must not exceed the period of 90 days beginning with the day on which the
order is made.
Applications
3 (1) An application for an account monitoring
order may be made ex parte to a judge in chambers.
(2) The description of information specified
in an application for an account monitoring order may be varied by the person
who made the application.
(3) If the application was made by a police
officer, the description of information specified in it may be varied by a
different police officer.
Discharge or
variation
4 (1) An application to discharge or vary an
account monitoring order may be made to the court by—
(a) the person who applied for the
order;
(b) any person affected by the order.
(2) If the application for the account
monitoring order was made by a police officer, an application to discharge or
vary the order may be made by a different police officer.
(3) The court—
(a) may discharge the order;
(b) may vary the order.
Rules of court
5 (1) Rules of court may make provision as to
the practice and procedure to be followed in connection with proceedings
relating to account monitoring orders.
(2) In Scotland, rules of court shall, without
prejudice to section 305 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46), be
made by Act of Adjournal.
Effect of orders
6 (1) In England and Wales and Northern Ireland,
an account monitoring order has effect as if it were an order of the
court.
(2) An account monitoring order has effect in
spite of any restriction on the disclosure of information (however
imposed).
Statements
7 (1) A statement made by a financial
institution in response to an account monitoring order may not be used in
evidence against it in criminal proceedings.
(2) But sub-paragraph (1) does not
apply—
(a) in the case of proceedings for contempt of
court;
(b) in the case of proceedings under section
23 where the financial institution has been convicted of an offence under any of
sections 15 to 18;
(c) on a prosecution for an offence where, in
giving evidence, the financial institution makes a statement inconsistent with
the statement mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).
(3) A statement may not be used by virtue of
sub-paragraph (2)(c) against a financial institution unless—
(a) evidence relating to it is adduced,
or
(b) a question relating to it is asked,
by or on behalf of the financial institution
in the proceedings arising out of the prosecution.”
Part
2 Restraint orders
2 (1) Part 1 of
Schedule 4 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)
(forfeiture orders under section 23 of that Act: England and Wales) is amended
as follows.
(2) In
paragraph 5 (restraint orders) for sub-paragraph (2) substitute—
“(2)
The High Court may also make a
restraint order under this paragraph where—
(a) a criminal investigation has been started
in England and Wales with regard to an offence under any of sections 15 to
18,
(b) an application for a restraint order is
made to the High Court by the person who the High Court is satisfied will have
the conduct of any proceedings for the offence, and
(c) it appears to the High Court that a
forfeiture order may be made in any proceedings for the offence.”
(3) In
paragraph 5(3) for “the proceedings” substitute “any proceedings”.
(4) In
paragraph 5 after sub-paragraph (5) insert—
“(6)
In this paragraph “criminal
investigation” means an investigation which police officers or other persons
have a duty to conduct with a view to it being ascertained whether a person
should be charged with an offence.”
(5) For
paragraph 6(3) substitute—
“(3)
A restraint order made under
paragraph 5(1) shall in particular be discharged on an application under
sub-paragraph (2) if the proceedings for the offence have been concluded.
(4) A restraint order made under paragraph
5(2) shall in particular be discharged on an application under sub-paragraph
(2)—
(a) if no proceedings in respect of offences
under any of sections 15 to 18 are instituted within such time as the High Court
considers reasonable, and
(b) if all proceedings in respect of offences
under any of sections 15 to 18 have been concluded.”
(6) In
paragraph 8(3) for “the proposed proceedings” substitute “any proceedings for an
offence under any of sections 15 to 18”.
(7) In
paragraph 9(1) (compensation where restraint order discharged) for “paragraph
6(3)(a)” substitute “paragraph 6(4)(a)”.
3 (1) Part 2 of
Schedule 4 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)
(forfeiture orders under section 23 of that Act: Scotland) is amended as
follows.
(2) In
paragraph 18 (restraint orders) for sub-paragraph (2) substitute—
“(2)
The Court of Session may also make a
restraint order on such an application where—
(a) a criminal investigation has been
instituted in Scotland with regard to an offence under any of sections 15 to 18,
and
(b) it appears to the Court of Session that a
forfeiture order may be made in any proceedings for the offence.”
(3) In
paragraph 18(3) for “the proceedings” substitute “any proceedings”.
(4) In
paragraph 18 after sub-paragraph (5) insert—
“(6)
In this paragraph “criminal
investigation” means an investigation which police officers or other persons
have a duty to conduct with a view to it being ascertained whether a person
should be charged with an offence.”
(5) For
paragraph 19(3) substitute—
“(3)
A restraint order made under
paragraph 18(1) shall in particular be recalled on an application under
sub-paragraph (2) if the proceedings for the offence have been concluded.
(3A) A restraint order made under paragraph
18(2) shall in particular be discharged on an application under sub-paragraph
(2)—
(a) if no proceedings in respect of offences
under any of sections 15 to 18 are instituted within such time as the Court of
Session considers reasonable, and
(b) if all proceedings in respect of offences
under any of sections 15 to 18 have been concluded.”
(6) In
paragraph 23(1) for “19(3)(a)” substitute “19(3A)(a)”.
4 (1) Part 3 of
Schedule 4 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (forfeiture orders under section 23 of that
Act: Northern Ireland) is amended as follows.
(2) In
paragraph 33 (restraint orders) for sub-paragraph (2) substitute—
“(2)
The High Court may also make a
restraint order under this paragraph where—
(a) a criminal investigation has been started
in Northern Ireland with regard to an offence under any of sections 15 to
18,
(b) an application for a restraint order is
made to the High Court by the person who the High Court is satisfied will have
the conduct of any proceedings for the offence, and
(c) it appears to the High Court that a
forfeiture order may be made in any proceedings for the offence.”
(3) In
paragraph 33(3) for “the proceedings” substitute “any proceedings”.
(4) In
paragraph 33 after sub-paragraph (5) insert—
“(6)
In this paragraph “criminal
investigation” means an investigation which police officers or other persons
have a duty to conduct with a view to it being ascertained whether a person
should be charged with an offence.”
(5) For
paragraph 34(3) substitute—
“(3)
A restraint order made under
paragraph 33(1) shall in particular be discharged on an application under
sub-paragraph (2) if the proceedings for the offence have been concluded.
(4) A restraint order made under paragraph
33(2) shall in particular be discharged on an application under sub-paragraph
(2)—
(a) if no proceedings in respect of offences
under any of sections 15 to 18 are instituted within such time as the High Court
considers reasonable, and
(b) if all proceedings in respect of offences
under any of sections 15 to 18 have been concluded.”
(6) In
paragraph 38(4), in the definition of “prosecutor”, for “the proposed
proceedings” substitute “any proceedings for an offence under any of sections 15
to 18”.
(7) In
paragraph 39(1) (compensation where restraint order discharged) for “paragraph
34(3)(a)” substitute “paragraph 34(4)(a)”.
Part
3 Disclosure of
information
5 (1) The
Terrorism Act 2000
(c. 11) is amended as follows.
(2) The
following sections are inserted after section 21—
“21A Failure to disclose: regulated
sector
(1) A person commits an offence if each of the
following three conditions is satisfied.
(2) The first condition is that he—
(a) knows or suspects, or
(b) has reasonable grounds for knowing or
suspecting,
that another person has committed an offence
under any of sections 15 to 18.
(3) The second condition is that the
information or other matter—
(a) on which his knowledge or suspicion is
based, or
(b) which gives reasonable grounds for such
knowledge or suspicion,
came to him in the course of a business in
the regulated sector.
(4) The third condition is that he does not
disclose the information or other matter to a constable or a nominated officer
as soon as is practicable after it comes to him.
(5) But a person does not commit an offence
under this section if—
(a) he has a reasonable excuse for not
disclosing the information or other matter;
(b) he is a professional legal adviser and the
information or other matter came to him in privileged circumstances.
(6) In deciding whether a person committed an
offence under this section the court must consider whether he followed any
relevant guidance which was at the time concerned—
(a) issued by a supervisory authority or any
other appropriate body,
(b) approved by the Treasury, and
(c) published in a manner it approved as
appropriate in its opinion to bring the guidance to the attention of persons
likely to be affected by it.
(7) A disclosure to a nominated officer is a
disclosure which—
(a) is made to a person nominated by the
alleged offender’s employer to receive disclosures under this section,
and
(b) is made in the course of the alleged
offender’s employment and in accordance with the procedure established by the
employer for the purpose.
(8) Information or other matter comes to a
professional legal adviser in privileged circumstances if it is communicated or
given to him—
(a) by (or by a representative of) a client of
his in connection with the giving by the adviser of legal advice to the
client,
(b) by (or by a representative of) a person
seeking legal advice from the adviser, or
(c) by a person in connection with legal
proceedings or contemplated legal proceedings.
(9) But subsection (8) does not apply to
information or other matter which is communicated or given with a view to
furthering a criminal purpose.
(10) Schedule 3A has effect for the purpose of
determining what is—
(a) a business in the regulated sector;
(b) a supervisory authority.
(11) For the purposes of subsection (2) a
person is to be taken to have committed an offence there mentioned if—
(a) he has taken an action or been in
possession of a thing, and
(b) he would have committed the offence if he
had been in the United Kingdom at the time when he took the action or was in
possession of the thing.
(12) A person guilty of an offence under this
section is liable—
(a) on conviction on indictment, to
imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years or to a fine or to both;
(b) on summary conviction, to imprisonment for
a term not exceeding six months or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum
or to both.
(13) An appropriate body is any body which
regulates or is representative of any trade, profession, business or employment
carried on by the alleged offender.
(14) The reference to a constable includes a
reference to a person authorised for the purposes of this section by the
Director General of the National Criminal Intelligence Service.
21B Protected disclosures
(1) A disclosure which satisfies the following
three conditions is not to be taken to breach any restriction on the disclosure
of information (however imposed).
(2) The first condition is that the
information or other matter disclosed came to the person making the disclosure
(the discloser) in the course of a business in the regulated sector.
(3) The second condition is that the
information or other matter—
(a) causes the discloser to know or suspect,
or
(b) gives him reasonable grounds for knowing
or suspecting,
that another person has committed an offence
under any of sections 15 to 18.
(4) The third condition is that the disclosure
is made to a constable or a nominated officer as soon as is practicable after
the information or other matter comes to the discloser.
(5) A disclosure to a nominated officer is a
disclosure which—
(a) is made to a person nominated by the
discloser’s employer to receive disclosures under this section, and
(b) is made in the course of the discloser’s
employment and in accordance with the procedure established by the employer for
the purpose.
(6) The reference to a business in the
regulated sector must be construed in accordance with Schedule 3A.
(7) The reference to a constable includes a
reference to a person authorised for the purposes of this section by the
Director General of the National Criminal Intelligence Service.”
(3) In
section 19 after subsection (1) insert—
“(1A) But this section does not apply if the
information came to the person in the course of a business in the regulated
sector.”
(4) In
section 19 after subsection (7) insert—
“(7A) The reference to a business in the
regulated sector must be construed in accordance with Schedule 3A.
(7B) The reference to a constable includes a
reference to a person authorised for the purposes of this section by the
Director General of the National Criminal Intelligence Service.”
(5) In
section 20 after subsection (4) insert—
“(5)
References to a constable include
references to a person authorised for the purposes of this section by the
Director General of the National Criminal Intelligence Service.”
(6) The
following Schedule is inserted after Schedule 3—
“SCHEDULE
3A Regulated sector and supervisory
authorities
Part 1 Regulated sector
Business in the
regulated sector
1 (1) A business is in the regulated sector to
the extent that it engages in any of the following activities—
(a) accepting deposits by a person with
permission under Part 4 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8) to
accept deposits (including, in the case of a building society, the raising of
money from members of the society by the issue of shares);
(b) the business of the National Savings
Bank;
(c) business carried on by a credit
union;
(d) any home-regulated activity carried on by
a European institution in respect of which the establishment conditions in
paragraph 13 of Schedule 3 to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000, or
the service conditions in paragraph 14 of that Schedule, are satisfied;
(e) any activity carried on for the purpose of
raising money authorised to be raised under the National Loans Act 1968 (c. 13)
under the auspices of the Director of Savings;
(f) the activity of operating a bureau de
change, transmitting money (or any representation of monetary value) by any
means or cashing cheques which are made payable to customers;
(g) any activity falling within sub-paragraph
(2);
(h) any of the activities in points 1 to 12 or
14 of Annex 1 to the Banking Consolidation Directive, ignoring an activity
described in any of paragraphs (a) to (g) above;
(i) business which consists of effecting or
carrying out contracts of long term insurance by a person who has received
official authorisation pursuant to Article 6 or 27 of the First Life
Directive.
(2) An activity falls within this
sub-paragraph if it constitutes any of the following kinds of regulated activity
in the United Kingdom—
(a) dealing in investments as principal or as
agent;
(b) arranging deals in investments;
(c) managing investments;
(d) safeguarding and administering
investments;
(e) sending dematerialised
instructions;
(f) establishing (and taking other steps in
relation to) collective investment schemes;
(g) advising on investments.
(3) Paragraphs (a) and (i) of sub-paragraph
(1) and sub-paragraph (2) must be read with section 22 of the Financial Services
and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8), any relevant order under that section and Schedule 2
to that Act.
2 (1) This paragraph has effect for the purposes
of paragraph 1.
(2) “Building society” has the meaning given
by the Building Societies Act 1986.
(3) “Credit union” has the meaning given by
the Credit Unions Act 1979 (c. 34) or the Credit Unions (Northern Ireland) Order
1985 (S.I. 1985/1205 (N.I.
12)).
(4) “European institution” means an EEA firm of the kind mentioned in
paragraph 5(b) or (c) of Schedule 3 to the Financial Services and Markets Act
2000 which qualifies for authorisation for the purposes of that Act under
paragraph 12 of that Schedule.
(5) “Home-regulated activity” in relation to a
European institution, means an activity—
(a) which is specified in Annex 1 to the
Banking Consolidation Directive and in respect of which a supervisory authority
in the home State of the institution has regulatory functions, and
(b) if the institution is an EEA firm of the
kind mentioned in paragraph 5(c) of Schedule 3 to the Financial Services and
Markets Act 2000, which the institution carries on in its home State.
(6) “Home State”, in relation to a person
incorporated in or formed under the law of another member State, means that
State.
(7) The Banking Consolidation Directive is the
Directive of the European Parliament and Council relating to the taking up and
pursuit of the business of credit institutions (No.
2000/12 EC).
(8) The First Life Directive is the First
Council Directive on the co-ordination of laws, regulations and administrative
provisions relating to the taking up and pursuit of the business of direct life
assurance (No. 79/267/EEC).
Excluded
activities
3 A business is not in the regulated sector
to the extent that it engages in any of the following activities—
(a) the issue of withdrawable share capital
within the limit set by section 6 of the Industrial and Provident Societies Act
1965 (c. 12) by a society registered under that Act;
(b) the acceptance of deposits from the public
within the limit set by section 7(3) of that Act by such a society;
(c) the issue of withdrawable share capital
within the limit set by section 6 of the Industrial and Provident Societies Act
(Northern Ireland) 1969 (N.I. c. 24) by a society registered under that
Act;
(d) the acceptance of deposits from the public
within the limit set by section 7(3) of that Act by such a society;
(e) activities carried on by the Bank of
England;
(f) any activity in respect of which an
exemption order under section 38 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8) has
effect if it is carried on by a person who is for the time being specified in
the order or falls within a class of persons so specified .
Part 2 Supervisory authorities
4 (1) Each of the following is a supervisory
authority—
(a) the Bank of England;
(b) the Financial Services Authority;
(c) the Council of Lloyd's;
(d) the Director General of Fair
Trading;
(e) a body which is a designated professional
body for the purposes of Part 20 of the Financial Services and Markets Act
2000.
(2) The Secretary of State is also a
supervisory authority in the exercise, in relation to a person carrying on a
business in the regulated sector, of his functions under the enactments relating
to companies or insolvency or under the Financial Services and Markets Act
2000.
(3) The Treasury are also a supervisory
authority in the exercise, in relation to a person carrying on a business in the
regulated sector, of their functions under the enactments relating to companies
or insolvency or under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
Part 3 Power to amend
5 (1) The Treasury may by order amend Part 1 or
2 of this Schedule.
(2) An order under sub-paragraph (1) must be
made by statutory instrument subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution
of either House of Parliament.”
Part
4 Financial information
orders
6 (1) Paragraph
1 of Schedule 6 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)
(financial information orders) is amended as follows.
(2) In
sub-paragraph (1) after “financial institution” insert “to which the order
applies”.
(3) After sub-paragraph (1) insert—
“(1A) The order may provide that it applies
to—
(a) all financial institutions,
(b) a particular description, or particular
descriptions, of financial institutions, or
(c) a particular financial institution or
particular financial institutions.”
SCHEDULE 3 Freezing orders
Interpretation
1 References in this Schedule to a person specified
in a freezing order as a person to whom or for whose benefit funds are not to be
made available are to be read in accordance with section 5(4).
Funds
2 A freezing order may include provision that funds
include gold, cash, deposits, securities (such as stocks, shares and debentures)
and such other matters as the order may specify.
Making funds
available
3 (1) A
freezing order must include provision as to the meaning (in relation to funds)
of making available to or for the benefit of a person.
(2) In
particular, an order may provide that the expression includes—
(a) allowing a person to withdraw from an
account;
(b) honouring a cheque payable to a person;
(c) crediting a person’s account with
interest;
(d) releasing documents of title (such as share
certificates) held on a person’s behalf;
(e) making available the proceeds of realisation of a
person’s property;
(f) making a payment to or for a person’s benefit
(for instance, under a contract or as a gift or under any enactment such as the
enactments relating to social security);
(g) such other acts as the order may specify.
Licences
4 (1) A
freezing order must include—
(a) provision for the granting of licences
authorising funds to be made available;
(b) provision that a prohibition under the order is
not to apply if funds are made available in accordance with a licence.
(2) In
particular, an order may provide—
(a) that a licence may be granted generally or to a
specified person or persons or description of persons;
(b) that a licence may authorise funds to be made
available to or for the benefit of persons generally or a specified person or
persons or description of persons;
(c) that a licence may authorise funds to be made
available generally or for specified purposes;
(d) that a licence may be granted in relation to
funds generally or to funds of a specified description;
(e) for
a licence to be granted in pursuance of an application or without an application
being made;
(f) for
the form and manner in which applications for licences are to be made;
(g) for
licences to be granted by the Treasury or a person authorised by the
Treasury;
(h) for
the form in which licences are to be granted;
(i) for
licences to be granted subject to conditions;
(j) for
licences to be of a defined or indefinite duration;
(k) for
the charging of a fee to cover the administrative costs of granting a
licence;
(l) for
the variation and revocation of licences.
Information and
documents
5 (1) A
freezing order may include provision that a person—
(a) must provide information if required to do so and
it is reasonably needed for the purpose of ascertaining whether an offence under
the order has been committed;
(b) must produce a document if required to do so and
it is reasonably needed for that purpose.
(2) In
particular, an order may include—
(a) provision that a requirement to provide
information or to produce a document may be made by the Treasury or a person
authorised by the Treasury;
(b) provision that information must be provided, and
a document must be produced, within a reasonable period specified in the order
and at a place specified by the person requiring it;
(c) provision that the provision of information is
not to be taken to breach any restriction on the disclosure of information
(however imposed);
(d) provision restricting the use to which
information or a document may be put and the circumstances in which it may be
disclosed;
(e) provision that a requirement to provide
information or produce a document does not apply to privileged information or a
privileged document;
(f) provision that information is privileged if the
person would be entitled to refuse to provide it on grounds of legal
professional privilege in proceedings in the High Court or (in Scotland) on
grounds of confidentiality of communications in proceedings in the Court of
Session;
(g) provision that a document is privileged if the
person would be entitled to refuse to produce it on grounds of legal
professional privilege in proceedings in the High Court or (in Scotland) on
grounds of confidentiality of communications in proceedings in the Court of
Session;
(h) provision that information or a document held
with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose is not privileged.
Disclosure of
information
6 (1) A
freezing order may include provision requiring a person to disclose information
as mentioned below if the following three conditions are satisfied.
(2) The
first condition is that the person required to disclose is specified or falls
within a description specified in the order.
(3) The
second condition is that the person required to disclose knows or suspects, or
has grounds for knowing or suspecting, that a person specified in the freezing
order as a person to whom or for whose benefit funds are not to be made
available—
(a) is
a customer of his or has been a customer of his at any time since the freezing
order came into force, or
(b) is
a person with whom he has dealings in the course of his business or has had such
dealings at any time since the freezing order came into force.
(4) The
third condition is that the information—
(a) on
which the knowledge or suspicion of the person required to disclose is based,
or
(b) which gives grounds for his knowledge or
suspicion,
came to him in the course of a business in the
regulated sector.
(5) The
freezing order may require the person required to disclose to make a disclosure
to the Treasury of that information as soon as is practicable after it comes to
him.
(6) The
freezing order may include—
(a) provision that Schedule 3A to the Terrorism Act
2000 (c. 11) is
to have effect for the purpose of determining what is a business in the
regulated sector;
(b) provision that the disclosure of information is
not to be taken to breach any restriction on the disclosure of information
(however imposed);
(c) provision restricting the use to which
information may be put and the circumstances in which it may be disclosed by the
Treasury;
(d) provision that the requirement to disclose
information does not apply to privileged information;
(e) provision that information is privileged if the
person would be entitled to refuse to disclose it on grounds of legal
professional privilege in proceedings in the High Court or (in Scotland) on
grounds of confidentiality of communications in proceedings in the Court of
Session;
(f) provision that information held with the
intention of furthering a criminal purpose is not privileged.
Offences
7 (1) A
freezing order may include any of the provisions set out in this
paragraph.
(2) A
person commits an offence if he fails to comply with a prohibition imposed by
the order.
(3) A
person commits an offence if he engages in an activity knowing or intending that
it will enable or facilitate the commission by another person of an offence
under a provision included under sub-paragraph (2).
(4) A
person commits an offence if—
(a) he
fails without reasonable excuse to provide information, or to produce a
document, in response to a requirement made under the order;
(b) he
provides information, or produces a document, which he knows is false in a
material particular in response to such a requirement or with a view to
obtaining a licence under the order;
(c) he
recklessly provides information, or produces a document, which is false in a
material particular in response to such a requirement or with a view to
obtaining a licence under the order;
(d) he
fails without reasonable excuse to disclose information as required by a
provision included under paragraph 6.
(5) A
person does not commit an offence under a provision included under sub-paragraph
(2) or (3) if he proves that he did not know and had no reason to suppose that
the person to whom or for whose benefit funds were made available, or were to be
made available, was the person (or one of the persons) specified in the freezing
order as a person to whom or for whose benefit funds are not to be made
available.
(6) A
person guilty of an offence under a provision included under sub-paragraph (2)
or (3) is liable—
(a) on
summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to a
fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or to both;
(b) on
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to
a fine or to both.
(7) A
person guilty of an offence under a provision included under sub-paragraph (4)
is liable on summary conviction to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6
months or to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale or to
both.
Offences:
procedure
8 (1) A
freezing order may include any of the provisions set out in this
paragraph.
(2) Proceedings for an offence under the order are
not to be instituted in England and Wales except by or with the consent of the
Treasury or the Director of Public Prosecutions.
(3) Proceedings for an offence under the order are
not to be instituted in Northern Ireland except by or with the consent of the
Treasury or the Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland.
(4) Despite anything in section 127(1) of the
Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43) (information to be laid within 6 months of
offence) an information relating to an offence under the order which is triable
by a magistrates' court in England and Wales may be so tried if it is laid at
any time in the period of one year starting with the date of the commission of
the offence.
(5) In
Scotland summary proceedings for an offence under the order may be commenced at
any time in the period of one year starting with the date of the commission of
the offence.
(6) In
its application to an offence under the order Article 19(1)(a) of the
Magistrates' Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I. 26)) (time limit
within which complaint charging offence must be made) is to have effect as if
the reference to six months were a reference to twelve months.
Offences by bodies
corporate etc.
9 (1) A
freezing order may include any of the provisions set out in this
paragraph.
(2) If
an offence under the order—
(a) is
committed by a body corporate, and
(b) is
proved to have been committed with the consent or connivance of an officer, or
to be attributable to any neglect on his part,
he as well as the body corporate is guilty of the
offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
(3) These are officers of a body corporate—
(a) a
director, manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body;
(b) any
person purporting to act in any such capacity.
(4) If
the affairs of a body corporate are managed by its members sub-paragraph (2)
applies in relation to the acts and defaults of a member in connection with his
functions of management as if he were an officer of the body.
(5) If
an offence under the order—
(a) is
committed by a Scottish partnership, and
(b) is
proved to have been committed with the consent or connivance of a partner, or to
be attributable to any neglect on his part,
he as well as the partnership is guilty of the
offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
Compensation
10 (1) A
freezing order may include provision for the award of compensation to or on
behalf of a person on the grounds that he has suffered loss as a result
of—
(a) the
order;
(b) the
fact that a licence has not been granted under the order;
(c) the
fact that a licence under the order has been granted on particular terms rather
than others;
(d) the
fact that a licence under the order has been varied or revoked.
(2) In
particular, the order may include—
(a) provision about the person who may make a claim
for an award;
(b) provision about the person to whom a claim for an
award is to be made (which may be provision that it is to be made to the High
Court or, in Scotland, the Court of Session);
(c) provision about the procedure for making and
deciding a claim;
(d) provision that no compensation is to be awarded
unless the claimant has behaved reasonably (which may include provision
requiring him to mitigate his loss, for instance by applying for a
licence);
(e) provision that compensation must be awarded in
specified circumstances or may be awarded in specified circumstances (which may
include provision that the circumstances involve negligence or other
fault);
(f) provision about the amount that may be
awarded;
(g) provision about who is to pay any compensation
awarded (which may include provision that it is to be paid or reimbursed by the
Treasury);
(h) provision about how compensation is to be paid
(which may include provision for payment to a person other than the
claimant).
Treasury’s duty to give
reasons
11 A freezing order must include provision that
if—
(a) a
person is specified in the order as a person to whom or for whose benefit funds
are not to be made available, and
(b) he
makes a written request to the Treasury to give him the reason why he is so
specified,
as soon as is practicable the Treasury must give the
person the reason in writing.
SCHEDULE 4 Extension of existing
disclosure powers
Part 1 Enactments to which section 17 applies
Agricultural
Marketing Act 1958 (c. 47)
1 Section 47(2) of the Agricultural Marketing Act
1958.
Harbours Act 1964
(c. 40)
2 Section 46(1) of the Harbours Act 1964.
Cereals Marketing
Act 1965 (c. 14)
3 Section 17(2) of the Cereals Marketing Act
1965.
Agriculture Act 1967
(c. 22)
4 Section 24(1) of the Agriculture Act 1967.
Trade Descriptions
Act 1968 (c. 29)
5 Section 28(5A) of the Trade Descriptions Act
1968.
Sea Fish Industry
Act 1970 (c. 11)
6 Section 14(2) of the Sea Fish Industry Act
1970.
National Savings
Bank Act 1971 (c. 29)
7 Section 12(2) of the National Savings Bank Act
1971.
Employment Agencies
Act 1973 (c. 35)
8 Section 9(4) of the Employment Agencies Act
1973.
Fair Trading Act
1973 (c. 41)
9 Section 133(3) of the Fair Trading Act 1973 so
far only as it relates to information obtained under or by virtue of any
provision of Part 3 of that Act (protection of consumers).
Prices Act 1974 (c.
24)
10 Paragraph 12(2) of the Schedule to the Prices Act
1974.
Consumer Credit Act
1974 (c. 39)
11 Section 174(3) of the Consumer Credit Act
1974.
Health and Safety at
Work etc. Act 1974 (c.
37)
12 Section 28(7) of the Health and Safety at Work
etc. Act 1974.
Sex Discrimination
Act 1975 (c. 65)
13 Section 61(1) of the Sex Discrimination Act
1975.
Race Relations Act
1976 (c. 74)
14 Section 52(1) of the Race Relations Act
1976.
Energy Act 1976 (c.
76)
15 Paragraph 7 of Schedule 2 to the Energy Act
1976.
National Health
Service Act 1977 (c. 49)
16 Paragraph 5 of Schedule 11 to the National Health
Service Act 1977.
Estate Agents Act
1979 (c. 38)
17 Section 10(3) of the Estate Agents Act
1979.
Public Passenger
Vehicles Act 1981 (c. 14)
18 Section 54(8) of the Public Passenger Vehicles
Act 1981.
Fisheries Act 1981
(c. 29)
19 Section 12(2) of the Fisheries Act 1981.
Merchant Shipping
(Liner Conferences) Act 1982 (c. 37)
20 Section 10(2) of the Merchant Shipping (Liner
Conferences) Act 1982.
Civil Aviation Act
1982 (c. 16)
21 Section 23(4) of the Civil Aviation Act
1982.
Diseases of Fish Act
1983 (c. 30)
22 Section 9(1) of the Diseases of Fish Act
1983.
Telecommunications
Act 1984 (c. 12)
23 Section 101(2) of the Telecommunications Act
1984.
Companies Act 1985
(c. 6)
24 Section 449(1) of the Companies Act 1985.
Airports Act 1986
(c. 31)
25 Section 74(2) of the Airports Act 1986.
Legal Aid (Scotland)
Act 1986 (c. 47)
26 Section 34(2) of the Legal Aid (Scotland) Act
1986.
Consumer Protection
Act 1987 (c. 43)
27 Section 38(2) of the Consumer Protection Act
1987.
28 Section 87(1) of the Companies Act 1989.
29 Section 197(2) of the Broadcasting Act
1990.
Property
Misdescriptions Act 1991 (c. 29)
30 Paragraph 7(1) of the Schedule to the Property
Misdescriptions Act 1991.
31 Section 206(3) of the Water Industry Act
1991.
32 Section 204(2) of the Water Resources Act
1991.
33 Paragraph 5(1) of Schedule 2 to the Timeshare Act
1992.
34 Section 145(2) of the Railways Act 1993.
35 Section 59(2) of the Coal Industry Act
1994.
Shipping and Trading
Interests (Protection) Act 1995 (c. 22)
36 Section 3(4) of the Shipping and Trading
Interests (Protection) Act 1995.
37 (1) Section
105(2) of the Pensions Act 1995.
(2) Section 108(2) of that Act.
Goods Vehicles
(Licensing of Operators) Act 1995 (c. 23)
38 Section 35(4) of the Goods Vehicles (Licensing of
Operators) Act 1995.
39 Section 32(2) of the Chemical Weapons Act
1996.
40 (1) Paragraph
5 of Schedule 7 to the Bank of England Act 1998.
(2) Paragraph 2 of Schedule 8 to that Act.
41 Section 49(1) of the Audit Commission Act
1998.
42 Section 59(1) of the Data Protection Act
1998.
Police (Northern
Ireland) Act 1998
(c. 32)
43 Section 63(1) of the Police (Northern Ireland)
Act 1998.
44 Section 19(2) of the Landmines Act 1998.
45 Section 24 of the Health Act 1999.
Disability Rights
Commission Act 1999
(c. 17)
46 Paragraph 22(2)(f) of Schedule 3 to the
Disability Rights Commission Act 1999.
47 Section 20(2) of the Access to Justice Act
1999.
Nuclear Safeguards
Act 2000 (c.
5)
48 Section 6(2) of the Nuclear Safeguards Act
2000.
49 Paragraph 34(3) of Schedule 22 to the Finance Act
2000.
50 Section 63(1) of the Local Government Act
2000.
51 Paragraph 3(1) of Schedule 7 to the Postal
Services Act 2000.
52 Section 105(4) of the Utilities Act 2000.
53 (1) Section
143(5)(b) of the Transport Act 2000.
(2) Paragraph 13(3) of Schedule 10 to that
Act.
Part
2 Northern Ireland
legislation to which section 17 applies
Transport Act
(Northern Ireland) 1967 (c. 37 (N.I.))
54 Section 36(1) of the Transport Act (Northern
Ireland) 1967.
Sex Discrimination
(Northern Ireland) Order 1976 (S.I. 1976/1042 (N.I. 15))
55 Article 61(1) of the Sex Discrimination (Northern
Ireland) Order 1976.
Health and Safety at
Work (Northern Ireland) Order 1978 (S.I. 1978/1039 (N.I. 9))
56 Article 30(6) of the Health and Safety at Work
(Northern Ireland) Order 1978.
Legal Aid, Advice
and Assistance (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (S.I. 1981/228 (N.I. 8))
57 Article 24(1) of the Legal Aid, Advice and
Assistance (Northern Ireland) Order 1981.
Agricultural
Marketing (Northern Ireland) Order 1982 (S.I. 1982/1080 (N.I. 12))
58 Article 29(3) of the Agricultural Marketing
(Northern Ireland) Order 1982.
Companies (Northern
Ireland) Order 1986 (S.I. 1986/1032 (N.I. 6))
59 Article 442(1) of the Companies (Northern
Ireland) Order 1986.
Consumer Protection
(Northern Ireland) Order 1987 (S.I. 1987 (N.I. 20))
60 Article 29(2) of the Consumer Protection
(Northern Ireland) Order 1987.
Electricity
(Northern Ireland) Order 1992 (S.I. 1992/231 (N.I. 1))
61 Article 61(2) of the Electricity (Northern
Ireland) Order 1992.
Airports (Northern
Ireland) Order 1994 (S.I. 1994/426 (N.I. 1))
62 Article 49(2) of the Airports (Northern Ireland)
Order 1994.
Pensions (Northern
Ireland) Order 1995 (S.I. 1995/3213 (N.I. 22))
63 (1) Article
103(2) of the Pensions (Northern Ireland) Order 1995.
(2) Article 106(2) of that Order.
Gas (Northern
Ireland) Order 1996 (S.I. 1996/275 (N.I. 2))
64 Article 44(3) of the Gas (Northern Ireland) Order
1996.
Race Relations
(Northern Ireland) Order 1997 (S.I. 1997/869 (N.I. 6))
65 Article 50(1) of the Race Relations (Northern
Ireland) Order 1997.
Fair Employment and
Treatment (Northern Ireland) Order 1998 (S.I. 1998/3162 (N.I. 21))
66 Article 18(1) of the Fair Employment and
Treatment (Northern Ireland) Order 1998.
SCHEDULE 5 Pathogens and toxins
VIRUSES
-
Chikungunya virus
-
Congo-crimean haemorrhagic fever
virus
-
Dengue fever virus
-
Eastern equine encephalitis virus
-
Ebola virus
-
Hantaan virus
-
Japanese encephalitis virus
-
Junin virus
-
Lassa fever virus
-
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus
-
Machupo virus
-
Marburg virus
-
Monkey pox virus
-
Rift Valley fever virus
-
Tick-borne encephalitis virus (Russian
Spring-Summer encephalitis virus)
-
Variola virus
-
Venezuelan equine encephalitis
virus
-
Western equine encephalitis virus
-
Yellow fever virus
RICKETTSIAE
BACTERIA
TOXINS
-
Aflatoxins
-
Botulinum toxins
-
Clostridium perfringens toxins
-
Conotoxin
-
Microcystin (Cyanginosin)
-
Ricin
-
Saxitoxin
-
Shiga toxin
-
Staphylococcus aureus toxins
-
Tetrodotoxin
-
Verotoxin
Notes
1 Any reference in this Schedule to a
micro-organism includes—
(a) any
genetic material containing any nucleic acid sequence associated with the
pathogenicity of the micro-organism; and
(b) any
genetically modified organism containing any such sequence.
2 Any reference in this Schedule to a toxin
includes—
(a) any
genetic material containing any nucleic acid sequence for the coding of the
toxin; and
(b) any
genetically modified organism containing any such sequence.
3 Any reference in this Schedule to a toxin
includes subunits of the toxin.
Section 70
SCHEDULE 6 The Pathogens Access Appeal
Commission
Constitution and
administration
1 (1) The
Commission shall consist of members appointed by the Lord Chancellor.
(2) The
Lord Chancellor shall appoint one of the members as chairman.
(3) A
member shall hold and vacate office in accordance with the terms of his
appointment.
(4) A
member may resign at any time by notice in writing to the Lord
Chancellor.
2 The Lord Chancellor may appoint officers and
servants for the Commission.
3 The Lord Chancellor—
(a) may
pay sums by way of remuneration, allowances, pensions and gratuities to or in
respect of members, officers and servants;
(b) may
pay compensation to a person who ceases to be a member of the Commission if the
Lord Chancellor thinks it appropriate because of special circumstances;
and
(c) may
pay sums in respect of expenses of the Commission.
Procedure
4 (1) The
Commission shall sit at such times and in such places as the Lord Chancellor may
direct.
(2) The
Commission may sit in two or more divisions.
(3) At
each sitting of the Commission—
(a) three members shall attend;
(b) one
of the members shall be a person who holds or has held high judicial office
(within the meaning of the Appellate Jurisdiction Act 1876 (c. 59)); and
(c) the
chairman or another member nominated by him shall preside and report the
Commission’s decision.
5 (1) The Lord
Chancellor may make rules—
(a) regulating the exercise of the right of appeal to
the Commission;
(b) prescribing practice and procedure to be followed
in relation to proceedings before the Commission;
(c) providing for proceedings before the Commission
to be determined without an oral hearing in specified circumstances;
(d) making provision about evidence in proceedings
before the Commission (including provision about the burden of proof and
admissibility of evidence);
(e) making provision about proof of the Commission’s
decisions.
(2) In
making the rules the Lord Chancellor shall, in particular, have regard to the
need to secure—
(a) that decisions which are the subject of appeals
are properly reviewed; and
(b) that information is not disclosed contrary to the
public interest.
(3) The
rules may, in particular—
(a) provide for full particulars of the reasons for
denial of access to be withheld from the applicant and from any person
representing him;
(b) enable the Commission to exclude persons
(including representatives) from all or part of proceedings;
(c) enable the Commission to provide a summary of
evidence taken in the absence of a person excluded by virtue of paragraph
(b);
(d) permit preliminary or incidental functions to be
discharged by a single member;
(e) permit proceedings for permission to appeal under
section 70(5) to be determined by a single member;
(f) make provision about the functions of persons
appointed under paragraph 6;
(g) make different provision for different parties or
descriptions of party.
(4) Rules under this paragraph—
(a) shall be made by statutory instrument; and
(b) shall not be made unless a draft of them has been
laid before and approved by resolution of each House of Parliament.
(5) In
this paragraph a reference to proceedings before the Commission includes a
reference to proceedings arising out of proceedings before the
Commission.
6 (1) The
relevant law officer may appoint a person to represent the interests of an
organisation or other applicant in proceedings in relation to which an order has
been made by virtue of paragraph 5(3)(b).
(2) The
relevant law officer is—
(a) in
relation to proceedings in England and Wales, the Attorney General;
(b) in
relation to proceedings in Scotland, the Advocate General for Scotland;
and
(c) in
relation to proceedings in Northern Ireland, the Attorney General for Northern
Ireland.
(3) A
person appointed under this paragraph must—
(a) have a general qualification for the purposes of
section 71 of the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990 (c. 41)
(qualification for legal appointments);
(b) be
an advocate or a solicitor who has rights of audience in the Court of Session or
the High Court of Justiciary by virtue of section 25A of the Solicitors
(Scotland) Act 1980 (c. 46); or
(c) be
a member of the Bar of Northern Ireland.
(4) A
person appointed under this paragraph shall not be responsible to the applicant
whose interests he is appointed to represent.
(5) In
paragraph 5 of this Schedule a reference to a representative does not include a
reference to a person appointed under this paragraph.
SCHEDULE 7 Transport police and MoD
police: further provisions
Police (Scotland) Act
1967 (c. 77)
1 The Police (Scotland) Act 1967 has effect subject
to the following amendments.
2 (1) Section
11 (aid of one police force by another) is amended as follows.
(2) In
subsection (2), for “Secretary of State” substitute “appropriate Minister or
Ministers” and after “he” insert “or they”.
(3) In
subsection (4), for “Secretary of State” substitute “appropriate
Ministers”.
(4) After that subsection insert—
“(5)
This section shall apply in relation
to the Strategic Rail Authority and the British Transport Police Force as it
applies to a police authority and a police force respectively.
(6) In subsection (2) “appropriate Minister or
Ministers” means—
(a) in relation to a direction given to the
Chief Constable of the British Transport Police Force, the Secretary of State,
and
(b) in any other case, the Scottish
Ministers.
(7) In subsection (4) “appropriate Ministers”
means—
(a) where the police authorities concerned
include the Strategic Rail Authority, the Scottish Ministers and the Secretary
of State, acting jointly, and
(b) in any other case, the Scottish
Ministers.”
3 (1) Section
12 (collaboration agreements) is amended as follows.
(2) In
subsection (3), for “Secretary of State” substitute “Scottish Ministers”.
(3) For
subsection (5) substitute—
“(5)
If it appears to the Scottish
Ministers that an agreement should be made for the purposes specified in
subsection (1), (2) or (4) of this section, they may, after considering any
representations made by the parties concerned, direct those parties to enter
into such agreement for that purpose as may be specified in the
directions.
(6) For the purposes of this section—
(a) the British Transport Police Force shall
be treated as if it were a police force;
(b) “police functions” shall include the
functions of the British Transport Police Force;
(c) the British Transport Police Committee
shall be treated as if it were the police authority maintaining that Force for
the purposes of subsections (1) and (2) of this section and the Strategic Rail
Authority shall be so treated for the purposes of subsection (3) of this
section; and
(d) “police area”, in relation to the British
Transport Police Force and the British Transport Police Committee, means those
places where members of the British Transport Police Force have the powers,
protection and privileges of a constable under section 53(4) of the British
Transport Commission Act 1949 (c. xxix).
(7) In relation to agreements relating to the
British Transport Police Force, any determination under subsection (3) shall be
made, and any directions under subsection (5) shall be given, by the Scottish
Ministers and the Secretary of State, acting jointly.”
4 (1) Section
17 (general functions and jurisdiction of constables) is amended as
follows.
(2) After subsection (4) insert—
“(4A) A member of the British Transport Police
Force who is for the time being required by virtue of section 11 or 12 of this
Act to serve with a police force shall—
(a) have all the powers and privileges of a
constable of that police force, and
(b) be subject to the direction of the chief
constable of that force.”
(3) In
subsection (7)(a), after “first-mentioned force” insert “or, if he is serving
with the British Transport Police Force, the Chief Constable of that
Force”.
5 (1) Section
42 (causing disaffection) is amended as follows.
(2) In
subsection (1), after “force” insert “or of the British Transport Police
Force”.
(3) In
subsection (2), after “constable” insert “or a member of the British Transport
Police Force”.
6 (1) Section
43 (impersonation etc.) is
amended as follows.
(2) After subsection (2) insert—
“(2A) For the purposes of this section—
(a) “constable” includes a member of the
British Transport Police Force, and
(b) any reference to “police” includes a
reference to that force.”
(3) In
subsection (3), after “police authority” insert “or by the British Transport
Police Committee”.
(4) After that subsection insert—
“(4)
In its application to articles of
British Transport Police Force uniform, subsection (1)(b) has effect as if for
the words “without the permission of the police authority for the police area in
which he is” there were substituted the words “in circumstances where it gives
him an appearance so nearly resembling that of a constable as to be calculated
to deceive”.”
7 In section 51 (interpretation), after the
definition of “amalgamation scheme” insert—
““British
Transport Police Force” means the constables appointed under section 53 of the
British Transport Commission Act 1949 (c. xxix) ;”.
Firearms Act 1968 (c.
27)
8 The Firearms Act 1968 has effect subject to the
following amendments.
9 In section 54 (Crown servants etc.), after
subsection (3) insert—
“(3A) An appropriately authorised person who is
either a member of the British Transport Police Force or an associated civilian
employee does not commit any offence under this Act by reason of having in his
possession, or purchasing or acquiring, for use by that Force anything which
is—
(a) a prohibited weapon by virtue of paragraph
(b) of section 5(1) of this Act; or
(b) ammunition containing or designed or
adapted to contain any such noxious thing as is mentioned in that
paragraph.
(3B) In subsection (3A) of this section—
(a) “appropriately authorised” means
authorised in writing by the Chief Constable of the British Transport Police
Force or, if he is not available, by a member of that Force who is of at least
the rank of assistant chief constable; and
(b) “associated civilian employee” means a
person employed by the Strategic Rail Authority who is under the direction and
control of the Chief Constable of the British Transport Police Force.”
10 In section 57(4), after the definition of
“Article 7 authority” insert—
““British
Transport Police Force” means the constables appointed under section 53 of the
British Transport Commission Act 1949;”.
Police and Criminal
Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60)
11 The Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 has
effect subject to the following amendments.
12 In section 35 (designated police stations), after
subsection (2) insert—
“(2A) The Chief Constable of the British
Transport Police Force may designate police stations which (in addition to those
designated under subsection (1) above) may be used for the purpose of detaining
arrested persons.”
13 (1) Section
36 (custody officers at designated police stations) is amended as
follows.
(2) In
subsection (2), for “a designated police station” substitute “a police station
designated under section 35(1) above”.
(3) After that subsection insert—
“(2A) A custody officer for a police station
designated under section 35(2A) above shall be appointed—
(a) by the Chief Constable of the British
Transport Police Force; or
(b) by such other member of that Force as that
Chief Constable may direct.”
14 In section 118(1), after the definition of
“arrestable offence” insert—
““British
Transport Police Force” means the constables appointed under section 53 of the
British Transport Commission Act 1949 (c. xxix);”.
Criminal Justice and
Public Order Act 1994 (c. 33)
15 The Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994
has effect subject to the following amendments.
16 (1) Section
60 (powers to stop and search) is amended as follows.
(2) After subsection (9) insert—
“(9A) The preceding provisions of this section,
so far as they relate to an authorisation by a member of the British Transport
Police Force (including one who for the time being has the same powers and
privileges as a member of a police force for a police area), shall have effect
as if the references to a locality in his police area were references to any
locality in or in the vicinity of any policed premises, or to the whole or any
part of any such premises.”
(3) In
subsection (11)—
(a) before the definition of “dangerous instruments”
insert—
““British
Transport Police Force” means the constables appointed under section 53 of the
British Transport Commission Act 1949;”,
and
(b) after the definition of “offensive weapon”
insert—
““policed
premises”, in relation to England and Wales, has the meaning given by section
53(3) of the British Transport Commission Act 1949 and, in relation to Scotland,
means those places where members of the British Transport Police Force have the
powers, protection and privileges of a constable under section 53(4)(a) of that
Act (as it relates to Scotland);”.
17 In section 136(1) and (2) (cross-border
enforcement: execution of warrants), after “country of execution” insert “, or
by a constable appointed under section 53 of the British Transport Commission
Act 1949,”.
18 In section 137 (cross-border powers of arrest),
after subsection (2) insert—
“(2A) The powers conferred by subsections (1)
and (2) may be exercised in England and Wales and Scotland by a constable
appointed under section 53 of the British Transport Commission Act 1949.”
19 In section 140 (reciprocal powers of arrest),
after subsection (6) insert—
“(6A) The references in subsections (1) and (2)
to a constable of a police force in Scotland, and the references in subsections
(3) and (4) to a constable of a police force in England and Wales, include a
constable appointed under section 53 of the British Transport Commission Act
1949 (c. xxix).”
20 The Police Act 1996 has effect subject to the
following amendments.
21 In section 23 (collaboration agreements between
police forces), after subsection (7) insert—
“(7A) For the purposes of this section—
(a) the British Transport Police Force shall
be treated as if it were a police force,
(b) the Chief Constable of that Force shall be
treated as if he were the chief officer of police of that Force,
(c) “police functions” shall include the
functions of the British Transport Police Force, and
(d) the British Transport Police Committee
shall be treated as if it were the police authority maintaining that Force for
the purposes of subsections (1), (2) and (7) and the Strategic Rail Authority
shall be so treated for the purposes of subsection (3).”
22 In section 24 (aid of one police force by
another), after subsection (4) insert—
“(4A) This section shall apply in relation to
the Strategic Rail Authority, the British Transport Police Force and the Chief
Constable of that Force as it applies to a police authority, a police force and
a chief officer of police respectively, and accordingly the reference in
subsection (3) to section 10(1) shall be construed, in a case where constables
are provided by that Chief Constable, as including a reference to the scheme
made under section 132 of the Railways Act 1993 (c. 43).”
23 In section 25 (provision of special services),
after subsection (1) insert—
“(1A) The Chief Constable of the British
Transport Police Force may provide special police services at the request of any
person, subject to the payment to the Strategic Rail Authority of charges on
such scales as may be determined by that Authority.”
24 In section 30 (jurisdiction of constables), after
subsection (3) insert—
“(3A) A member of the British Transport Police
Force who is for the time being required by virtue of section 23 or 24 to serve
with a police force maintained by a police authority shall have all the powers
and privileges of a member of that police force.”
25 In section 90(4) (impersonation etc.), before the
word “and” at the end of paragraph (a) insert—
“(aa) “member of a police force” includes a
member of the British Transport Police Force,”.
26 In section 91(2) (causing disaffection), after
“applies to” insert “members of the British Transport Police Force and”.
27 In section 101(1), before the definition of
“chief officer of police” insert—
““British
Transport Police Force” means the constables appointed under section 53 of the
British Transport Commission Act 1949 (c. xxix);”.
28 In section 105(2) (extent), after the entry
relating to section 21 insert “section 25(1A);”.
29 The Terrorism Act 2000 has effect subject to the
following amendments.
30 (1) Section
34 (power of superintendent for police area to designate cordoned area in the
police area) is amended as follows.
(2) In
subsection (1), for “subsection (2)” substitute “subsections (1A), (1B) and
(2)”.
(3) After that subsection insert—
“(1A) A designation under section 33 may be made
in relation to an area (outside Northern Ireland) which is in, on or in the
vicinity of any policed premises by a member of the British Transport Police
Force who is of at least the rank of superintendent.
(1B) A designation under section 33 may be made
by a member of the Ministry of Defence Police who is of at least the rank of
superintendent in relation to an area outside or in Northern Ireland—
(a) if it is a place to which subsection (2)
of section 2 of the Ministry of Defence Police Act 1987 (c. 4) applies,
(b) if a request has been made under paragraph
(a), (b) or (d) of subsection (3A) of that section in relation to a terrorist
investigation and it is a place where he has the powers and privileges of a
constable by virtue of that subsection as a result of the request, or
(c) if a request has been made under paragraph
(c) of that subsection in relation to a terrorist investigation and it is a
place in, on or in the vicinity of policed premises.
(1C) But a designation under section 33 may not
be made by—
(a) a member of the British Transport Police
Force, or
(b) a member of the Ministry of Defence
Police,
in any other case.”
31 In section 44 (power to authorise stopping and
searching), after subsection (4) insert—
“(4A) In a case (within subsection (4)(a), (b)
or (c)) in which the specified area or place is in, on or in the vicinity of
policed premises, an authorisation may also be given by a member of the British
Transport Police Force who is of at least the rank of assistant chief
constable.
(4B) In a case in which the specified area or
place is a place to which section 2(2) of the Ministry of Defence Police Act
1987 applies, an authorisation may also be given by a member of the Ministry of
Defence Police who is of at least the rank of assistant chief constable.
(4C) But an authorisation may not be given
by—
(a) a member of the British Transport Police
Force, or
(b) a member of the Ministry of Defence
Police,
in any other case.”
32 In section 121—
(a) after the definition of “article” insert—
““British
Transport Police Force” means the constables appointed under section 53 of the
British Transport Commission Act 1949 (c. xxix),”, and
(b) after the definition of “organisation”
insert—
““policed
premises”, in relation to England and Wales, has the meaning given by section
53(3) of the British Transport Commission Act 1949 and, in relation to Scotland,
means those places where members of the British Transport Police Force have the
powers, protection and privileges of a constable under section 53(4)(a) of that
Act (as it relates to Scotland).”
33 In section 122—
(a) after the entry relating to the expression
“Authorised officer” insert—
“British Transport Police Force |
Section 121”, |
and
(b) after the entry relating to the expression
“organisation” insert—
SCHEDULE 8 Repeals and revocation
Part 1 Terrorist property
Short Title and
Chapter |
Extent of
Repeal |
Access to Justice Act 1999 (c. 22) |
In Schedule 2, in paragraph 2(2),
the “or” at the end of paragraph (b), and in paragraph 2(3) the “or” at the end
of paragraph (i). |
Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) |
Sections 24 to 31.
In section 122, the entries for “Authorised officer” and
“Cash”.
|
|