Counter-Terrorism Act 2008
2008 CHAPTER 28
An Act to confer further powers to gather and share
information for counter-terrorism and other purposes; to make further provision
about the detention and questioning of terrorist suspects and the prosecution
and punishment of terrorist offences; to impose notification requirements on
persons convicted of such offences; to confer further powers to act against
terrorist financing, money laundering and certain other activities; to provide
for review of certain Treasury decisions and about evidence in, and other
matters connected with, review proceedings; to amend the law relating to
inquiries; to amend the definition of “terrorism”; to amend the enactments
relating to terrorist offences, control orders and the forfeiture of terrorist
cash; to provide for recovering the costs of policing at certain gas facilities;
to amend provisions about the appointment of special advocates in Northern
Ireland; and for connected purposes. 9
[26th November 2008]
Be it enacted by the Queen’s
most Excellent Majesty, by and with the advice and consent of the Lords
Spiritual and Temporal, and Commons, in this present Parliament assembled, and
by the authority of the same, as follows:—
Part
1 Powers to gather and
share information
Power to remove documents for examination
1 Power to
remove documents for examination
(1) This section applies to a search under any of the
following provisions—
(a) section 43(1) of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)
(search of suspected terrorist);
(b) section 43(2) of that Act (search of person
arrested under section 41 on suspicion of being a terrorist);
(c) paragraph 1, 3, 11, 15, 28 or 31 of Schedule 5 to
that Act (terrorist investigations);
(d) section 52(1) or (3)(b) of the Anti-terrorism,
Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (search for evidence of commission of
weapons-related offences);
(e) section 7A, 7B or 7C of the Prevention of
Terrorism Act 2005
(c. 2) (searches in connection with control orders);
(f) section 28 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 11)
(search for terrorist publications).
(2) A
constable who carries out a search to which this section applies may, for the
purpose of ascertaining whether a document is one that may be seized, remove the
document to another place for examination and retain it there until the
examination is completed.
(3) Where a constable carrying out a search to which
this section applies has power to remove a document by virtue of this section,
and the document—
(a) consists of information that is stored in
electronic form, and
(b) is
accessible from the premises being searched,
the constable may require the document to be
produced in a form in which it can be taken away, and in which it is visible and
legible or from which it can readily be produced in a visible and legible
form.
(4) A
constable has the same powers of seizure in relation to a document removed under
this section as the constable would have if it had not been removed (and if
anything discovered on examination after removal had been discovered without it
having been removed).
2 Offence of
obstruction
(1) A
person who wilfully obstructs a constable in the exercise of the power conferred
by section 1 commits an offence.
(2) A
person guilty of an offence under this section is liable on summary
conviction—
(a) in
England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 51 weeks or a fine
not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale, or both;
(b) in
Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding twelve months or a fine not
exceeding level 5 on the standard scale, or both;
(c) in
Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or a fine
not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale, or both.
(3) In
subsection (2)(a) as it applies in relation to an offence committed before
section 281(5) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (c. 44) comes
into force, for “51 weeks” substitute “six months”.
3 Items subject
to legal privilege
(1) Section 1 does not authorise a constable to
remove a document if the constable has reasonable cause to believe—
(a) it
is an item subject to legal privilege, or
(b) it
has an item subject to legal privilege comprised in it.
(2) Subsection (1)(b) does not prevent the removal of
a document if it is not reasonably practicable for the item subject to legal
privilege to be separated from the rest of the document without prejudicing any
use of the rest of the document that would be lawful if it were subsequently
seized.
(3) If,
after a document has been removed under section 1, it is discovered that—
(a) it
is an item subject to legal privilege, or
(b) it
has an item subject to legal privilege comprised in it,
the document must be returned forthwith.
(4) Subsection (3)(b) does not require the return of
a document if it is not reasonably practicable for the item subject to legal
privilege to be separated from the rest of the document without prejudicing any
use of the rest of the document that would be lawful if it were subsequently
seized.
(5) Where an item subject to legal privilege is
removed under subsection (2) or retained under subsection (4), it must not be
examined or put to any other use except to the extent necessary for facilitating
the examination of the rest of the document.
(6) For
the purposes of this section “item subject to legal privilege”—
(a) in
England and Wales, has the same meaning as in the Police and Criminal Evidence
Act 1984 (c. 60);
(b) in
Scotland, has the meaning given by section 412 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (c.
29);
(c) in
Northern Ireland, has the same meaning as in the Police and Criminal Evidence
(Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I.
12)).
4 Record of
removal
(1) A
constable who removes a document under section 1 must make a written record of
the removal.
(2) The
record must be made as soon as is reasonably practicable and in any event within
the period of 24 hours beginning with the time when the document was
removed.
(3) The
record must—
(a) describe the document,
(b) specify the object of the removal,
(c) where the document was found in the course of a
search of a person, state the person’s name (if known),
(d) where the document was found in the course of a
search of any premises, state the address of the premises where the document was
found,
(e) where the document was found in the course of a
search of any premises, state the name (if known) of—
(i) any
person who, when the record is made, appears to the constable to have been the
occupier of the premises when the document was found, and
(ii) any person who, when the record is made, appears
to the constable to have had custody or control of the document when it was
found, and
(f) state the date and time when the document was
removed.
(4) If,
in a case where the document was found in the course of a search of a person,
the constable does not know the person’s name, the record must include a
description of the person.
(5) If,
in a case where the document was found in the course of a search of any
premises, the constable does not know the name of a person mentioned in
subsection (3)(e) but is able to provide a description of that person, the
record must include such a description.
(6) The
record must identify the constable by reference to the constable’s police
number.
(7) The
following are entitled, on a request made to the constable, to a copy of the
record made under this section—
(a) where the document was found in the course of a
search of a person, that person; and
(b) where the document was found in the course of a
search of any premises—
(i) the
occupier of the premises when it was found, and
(ii) any person who had custody or control of the
document when it was found.
(8) The
constable must provide the copy within a reasonable time from the making of the
request.
(9) If,
in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, the document is found in the course of
a search under a warrant, the constable must make an endorsement on the warrant
stating that the document has been removed under section 1.
(10) In
the application of this section in relation to the search of a vehicle, the
reference to the address of the premises is to the location of the vehicle
together with its registration number (if any).
5 Retention of
documents
(1) A
document may not be retained by virtue of section 1 for more than 48 hours
without further authorisation.
(2) A
constable of at least the rank of chief inspector may authorise the retention of
the document for a further period or periods if satisfied that—
(a) the
examination of the document is being carried out expeditiously, and
(b) it
is necessary to continue the examination for the purpose of ascertaining whether
the document is one that may be seized.
(3) This does not permit the retention of a document
after the end of the period of 96 hours beginning with the time when it was
removed for examination.
6 Access to
documents
(1) Where—
(a) a
document is retained by virtue of section 5, and
(b) a
request for access to the document is made to the officer in charge of the
investigation by a person within subsection (3),
the officer must grant that person access to the
document, under the supervision of a constable, subject to subsection (4).
(2) Where—
(a) a
document is retained by virtue of section 5, and
(b) a
request for a copy of the document is made to the officer in charge of the
investigation by a person within subsection (3),
that person must be provided with a copy of the
document within a reasonable time from the making of the request, subject to
subsection (4).
(3) The
persons entitled to make a request under subsection (1) or (2) are—
(a) where the document was found in the course of a
search of a person, that person,
(b) where the document was found in the course of a
search of any premises—
(i) the
occupier of the premises when it was found, and
(ii) any person who had custody or control of the
document when it was found, and
(c) a
person acting on behalf of a person within paragraph (a) or (b).
(4) The
officer in charge of the investigation may refuse access to the document, or (as
the case may be) refuse to provide a copy of it, if the officer has reasonable
grounds for believing that to do so—
(a) would prejudice any investigation for the
purposes of which—
(i) the
original search was carried out, or
(ii) the document was removed or is being
retained,
(b) would prejudice the investigation of any
offence,
(c) would prejudice any criminal proceedings that may
be brought as the result of an investigation within paragraph (a) or (b),
or
(d) would facilitate the commission of an
offence.
(5) In
this section—
-
“the officer in charge of the
investigation” means the officer in charge of the investigation for the purposes
of which the document is being retained; and
-
“the original search” means the search
in the course of which the document was removed.
7 Photographing
and copying of documents
(1) Where a document is removed under section 1 it
must not be photographed or copied, except that—
(a) a
document may be copied for the purpose of providing a copy in response to a
request under section 6(2), and
(b) a
document consisting of information stored in electronic form may be copied for
the purpose of producing it in a visible and legible form.
(2) Where the original document is returned, any copy
under subsection (1)(b) must—
(a) in
the case of a copy in electronic form, be destroyed or made inaccessible as soon
as is reasonably practicable, and
(b) in
any other case, be returned at the same time as the original document is
returned.
(3) The
following are entitled, on a request made to the relevant chief officer of
police, to a certificate that subsection (2) has been complied with—
(a) where the document was found in the course of a
search of a person, that person;
(b) where the document was found in the course of a
search of any premises—
(i) the
occupier of the premises when it was found, and
(ii) any person who had custody or control of the
document when it was found.
(4) The
certificate must be issued by the relevant chief officer of police, or a person
authorised by or on behalf of that chief officer, not later than the end of the
period of three months beginning with the day on which the request is
made.
(5) For
this purpose the relevant chief officer of police is—
(a) where the search was carried out in England or
Wales, the chief officer of police in whose area the search was carried
out;
(b) where the search was carried out in Scotland, the
chief constable of the police force for the area in which the search was carried
out;
(c) where the search was carried out in Northern
Ireland, the Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland.
8 Return of
documents
(1) Where a document removed under section 1 is
required to be returned, it must be returned—
(a) where the document was found in the course of a
search of a person, to that person;
(b) where the document was found in the course of a
search of any premises, to the occupier of the premises when it was
found.
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply where a person who
is required to return the document is satisfied that another person has a better
right to it; and in such a case it must be returned—
(a) to
that other person, or
(b) to
whoever appears to the person required to return the document to have the best
right to it.
(3) Where different persons claim to be entitled to
the return of the document, it may be retained for as long as is reasonably
necessary for the determination of the person to whom it must be
returned.
(4) This section also applies in relation to a copy
of a document that is required to be returned at the same time as the original;
and in such a case references to the document in paragraphs (a) and (b) of
subsection (1) are to the original.
9 Power to
remove documents: supplementary provisions
(1) In
sections 1 to 8 “document” includes any record and, in particular, includes
information stored in electronic form.
(2) In
the application of those sections to a search under 52(1) of the Anti-terrorism,
Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24), for references to a constable substitute references
to an authorised officer within the meaning of that section.
(3) In
the application of those sections in relation to the search of a vehicle
references to the occupier of the premises are to the person in charge of the
vehicle.
Power to
take fingerprints and samples from person subject to control order
10 Power
to take fingerprints and samples: England and Wales
(1) In
section 61 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60)
(fingerprinting), after subsection (6B) insert—
“(6BA) A constable may take a person’s
fingerprints without the appropriate consent if the person is subject to a
control order.”.
(2) In
section 63 of that Act (other samples), after subsection (3C) insert—
“(3D) A non-intimate sample may also be taken
from a person without the appropriate consent if the person is subject to a
control order.”.
(3) In
section 63A of that Act (fingerprints and samples: supplementary
provisions)—
(a) in
subsection (1) (checking against other fingerprints or samples), after “reported
for such an offence” insert “or he is or has been subject to a control
order”;
(b) after subsection (6) insert—
“(6A) A constable may require a person who is
subject to a control order to attend a police station in order to—
(a) have his fingerprints taken in accordance
with section 61(6BA);
(b) have a non-intimate sample taken in
accordance with section 63(3D).”.
(4) In
section 64 of that Act (destruction of fingerprints and samples), after
subsection (1A) insert—
“(1AA) Where fingerprints or samples are taken
from a person who is subject to a control order the fingerprints or samples may
be retained after they have fulfilled the purposes for which they were taken but
shall not be used by any person except as described in subsection (1AB).”.
(5) In
section 65(1) of that Act (interpretation), at the appropriate places
insert—
““control
order” has the same meaning as in the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005;”;
““person
subject to a control order” means a person who has become bound by a control
order (see section 7(8) of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005) that remains in
force;”.
(6) The
following amendments of that Act are consequential on those above—
(a) in
section 61—
(i) in
subsection (6C) after “subsection (6A)” insert “or (6BA)”;
(ii) in
subsection (7) for “or (6A)” substitute “, (6A) or (6BA)”;
(iii) in subsection (7A) after “subsection (6A)”, in
both places where it occurs, insert “or (6BA)”;
(b) in
section 63 (other samples)—
(i) in
subsection (8A) for “or (3C)” substitute “, (3C) or (3D)”;
(ii) in
the opening words of subsection (8B) after “police station” insert “or by virtue
of subsection (3D) at a place other than a police station”;
(iii) in paragraph (a) of that subsection after
“officer” insert “, or, in a subsection (3D) case, a constable,”;
(c) in
section 63A(7) after “subsection (4)” insert “or (6A)”;
(d) in
section 64(1B) after “subsection (1A)” insert “, (1AA)”.
11 Power to
take fingerprints and samples: Scotland
(1) This section applies in relation to a person who
is subject to a control order in Scotland.
(2) A
constable may—
(a) take from the person, or require the person to
provide, any relevant physical data,
(b) with the authority of an officer of a rank no
lower than inspector, take from the person any sample mentioned in paragraph
(a), (b) or (c) of subsection (6) of section 18 (prints, samples etc. in criminal investigations) of the
Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46) (“the
1995 Act”) by the means specified in that paragraph in relation to the
sample,
(c) take, or direct a police custody and security
officer to take, from the person a sample mentioned in subsection (6A) of that
section by the means specified in that subsection.
(3) A
constable may—
(a) require the person to attend a police station for
the purposes of subsection (2), and
(b) arrest without warrant a person who fails to
comply with such a requirement.
(4) A
constable may use reasonable force in—
(a) taking any relevant physical data under
subsection (2)(a),
(b) securing compliance with a requirement imposed by
the constable under that subsection, or
(c) taking any sample under subsection (2)(b).
(5) A
constable may, with the authority of an officer of a rank no lower than
inspector, use reasonable force in taking any sample under subsection
(2)(c).
(6) Any
relevant physical data or sample obtained under this section, and information
derived from it, may be retained but may not be used by any person
except—
(a) for
the purposes of a terrorist investigation, or
(b) in
the interests of national security.
(7) Subject to subsection (6), any data or sample
obtained under this section, or information derived from it, may, in particular,
be checked against—
(a) other such data, samples or information,
(b) any
of the relevant physical data, samples and information to which section 20 of
the 1995 Act applies,
(c) any
of the fingerprints, samples and information mentioned in section 63A(1)(a) and
(b) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) (checking of
fingerprints and samples), and
(d) material to which section 18 of this Act applies
(material not subject to existing statutory restrictions).
(8) In
this section—
-
“control order” has the same meaning as
in the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 (c. 2);
-
“person subject to a control order”
means a person who has become bound by a control order (see section 7(8) of the
Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005) that remains in force;
-
“relevant physical data” has the same
meaning as it has for the purposes of section 18 of the 1995 Act (see
subsections (7A) and (7B) of that section);
-
“terrorist investigation” has the
meaning given in section 32 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c.
11).
12 Power to
take fingerprints and samples: Northern Ireland
(1) In
Article 53(1) of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989
(S.I. 1989/1341
(N.I. 12)) (interpretation of Part VI), at the appropriate places insert—
““control
order” has the same meaning as in the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005;”;
““person
subject to a control order” means a person who has become bound by a control
order (see section 7(8) of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005) that remains in
force;”.
(2) In
Article 61 of that Order (fingerprinting), after paragraph (6B) insert—
“(6BA) A constable may take a person’s
fingerprints without the appropriate consent if the person is subject to a
control order.”.
(3) In
Article 63 of that Order (other samples), after paragraph (3B) insert—
“(3C) A non-intimate sample may also be taken
from a person without the appropriate consent if the person is subject to a
control order.”.
(4) In
Article 63A of that Order (fingerprints and samples: supplementary
provisions)—
(a) in
paragraph (1) (checking against other fingerprints and samples), after “reported
for such an offence” insert “or he is or has been subject to a control
order”;
(b) after paragraph (6) insert—
“(6A) A constable may require a person who is
subject to a control order to attend a police station in order to—
(a) have his fingerprints taken in accordance
with Article 61(6BA);
(b) have a non-intimate sample taken in
accordance with Article 63(3C).”.
(5) In
Article 64 of that Order (destruction of fingerprints and samples), after
paragraph (1A) insert—
“(1AA) Where fingerprints or samples are taken
from a person who is subject to a control order the fingerprints or samples may
be retained after they have fulfilled the purposes for which they were taken but
shall not be used by any person except as described in paragraph (1AB).”.
(6) The
following amendments of that Order are consequential on those above—
(a) in
Article 61—
(i) in
paragraph (6C) after “paragraph (6A)” insert “or (6BA)”;
(ii) in
paragraph (7) for “or (6A)” substitute “, (6A) or (6BA)”;
(iii) in paragraph (7A) after “paragraph (6A)”, in both
places where it occurs, insert “or (6BA)”;
(b) in
Article 63—
(i) in
paragraph (8A) for “or (3B)” substitute “, (3B) or (3C)”;
(ii) in
the opening words of paragraph (8B) after “police station” insert “or by virtue
of paragraph (3C) at a place other than a police station”;
(iii) in sub-paragraph (a) of that paragraph after
“officer” insert “(or, in a paragraph (3C) case, a constable)”;
(c) in
Article 63A(7) after “paragraph (4)” insert “or (6A)”;
(d) in
Article 64(1B), after “paragraph (1A)” insert “, (1AA)”.
13 Power to
take fingerprints and samples: transitional provision
The provisions of—
-
section 10 (power to take fingerprints
and samples: England and Wales),
-
section 11 (power to take fingerprints
and samples: Scotland), and
-
section 12 (power to take fingerprints
and samples: Northern Ireland),
have effect from the commencement of the relevant
section regardless of when the control order was made.
Retention
and use of fingerprints and samples
14 Material subject to the Police and Criminal
Evidence Act 1984
(1) The
Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) is amended as follows.
(2) In
section 63A(1) (fingerprints, impressions of footwear and samples: what they may
be checked against), for paragraphs (a) and (b) substitute—
“(a)
other fingerprints, impressions of
footwear or samples—
(i) to which the person seeking to check has
access and which are held by or on behalf of any one or more relevant
law-enforcement authorities or are held in connection with or as a result of an
investigation of an offence, or
(ii) which are held by or on behalf of the
Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service;
(b) information derived from other
samples—
(i) which is contained in records to which the
person seeking to check has access and which are held as mentioned in paragraph
(a)(i) above, or
(ii) which is held by or on behalf of the
Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service.”.
(3) In
section 63A(1ZA) (fingerprints from a person whose identity is unclear: what
they may be checked against), for the words from “other fingerprints” to the
end, substitute “other fingerprints—
(a) to which the person seeking to check has
access and which are held by or on behalf of any one or more relevant
law-enforcement authorities or which are held in connection with or as a result
of an investigation of an offence, or
(b) which are held by or on behalf of the
Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service.”.
(4) In
section 64(1A) (purposes for which fingerprints, impressions of footwear or
samples may be retained and used), for the words from “except for purposes” to
the end substitute “except as described in subsection (1AB)”.
(5) After subsection (1AA) of that section (inserted
by section 10), insert—
“(1AB) The fingerprints, impressions of footwear
or samples may be used—
(a) in the interests of national
security,
(b) for purposes related to the prevention or
detection of crime, the investigation of an offence or the conduct of a
prosecution, or
(c) for purposes related to the identification
of a deceased person or of the person from whom the material came.”.
(6) In
subsection (1B) of that section, after “(1AA)” (inserted by section 10) insert
“or (1AB)”.
15 Material
subject to the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989
(1) The
Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)) is
amended as follows.
(2) In
Article 63A(1) (fingerprints and samples: what they may be checked against), for
paragraphs (a) and (b), substitute—
“(a)
other fingerprints, impressions of
footwear or samples—
(i) to which the person seeking to check has
access and which are held by or on behalf of any one or more relevant
law-enforcement authorities or are held in connection with or as a result of an
investigation of an offence, or
(ii) which are held by or on behalf of the
Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service;
(b) information derived from other
samples—
(i) which is contained in records to which the
person seeking to check has access and which are held as mentioned in paragraph
(a)(i) above, or
(ii) which is held by or on behalf of the
Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service.”.
(3) In
Article 63A(1ZA) (fingerprints from a person whose identity is unclear: what
they may be checked against), for “other fingerprints” to the end, substitute
“other
fingerprints—
(a) to which the person seeking to check has
access and which are held by or on behalf of any one or more relevant
law-enforcement authorities or which are held in connection with or as a result
of an investigation of an offence, or
(b) which are held by or on behalf of the
Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service.”.
(4) In
Article 64(1A) (purposes for which fingerprints or samples may be retained and
used), for the words from “except for purposes” to the end substitute “except as
described in paragraph (1AB)”.
(5) After paragraph (1AA) of that Article (inserted
by section 12) insert—
“(1AB) The fingerprints, impressions of footwear
or samples may be used—
(a) in the interests of national
security,
(b) for purposes related to the prevention or
detection of crime, the investigation of an offence or the conduct of a
prosecution, or
(c) for purposes related to the identification
of a deceased person or of the person from whom the material came.”.
(6) In
paragraph (1B) of that Article, after “(1AA)” (inserted by section 12) insert
“or (1AB)”.
16 Material subject to the Terrorism Act 2000:
England and Wales and Northern Ireland
(1) Paragraph 14 of Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act
2000 (rights of persons detained in England, Wales or Northern Ireland:
retention and use of fingerprints and samples etc) is amended as follows.
(2) In
sub-paragraph (2) (purposes for which fingerprints and samples may be used) for
the words from “or for purposes related” to the end substitute “or as mentioned
in sub-paragraph (2A)”.
(3) After that sub-paragraph insert—
“(2A) The fingerprints or samples may be
used—
(a) in the interests of national
security,
(b) for purposes related to the prevention or
detection of crime, the investigation of an offence or the conduct of a
prosecution, or
(c) for purposes related to the identification
of a deceased person or of the person from whom the material came.”.
(4) Omit sub-paragraph (3).
(5) In
sub-paragraph (4) (what fingerprints, samples or other information may be
checked against), after paragraph (b) insert—
“(ba) material to which section 18 of the
Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 applies,”.
17 Material
subject to the Terrorism Act 2000: Scotland
(1) Part 1 of Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 2000
(treatment of detained persons) is amended as follows.
(2) In
paragraph 20 (persons detained in Scotland: fingerprinting etc), in
sub-paragraph (3) (retention and use of physical data or samples), for the words
from “except” to the end substitute “except—
(a) for the purposes of a terrorist
investigation,
(b) in the interests of national security,
or
(c) for purposes related to the prevention or
detection of crime, the investigation of an offence or the conduct of a
prosecution.”.
(3) After paragraph 20, insert—
“21 (1) Section 20 of the Criminal Procedure
(Scotland) Act 1995 applies to relevant physical data or samples taken from a
person detained under Schedule 7 or section 41 at a police station in Scotland
with the following modifications.
(2) Omit the references to impressions.
(3) For the words from “against other such
data” to the end substitute “, subject to paragraph 20(3) of Schedule 8 to the
Terrorism Act 2000, against—
(a) other such data, samples and
information,
(b) any of the fingerprints, samples and
information mentioned in section 63A(1)(a) and (b) of the Police and Criminal
Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) (checking of fingerprints and samples), and
(c) material to which section 18 of the
Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 applies.”.
18 Material not
subject to existing statutory restrictions
(1) This section applies to—
(a) DNA samples or profiles, or
(b) fingerprints,
that are not held subject to existing statutory
restrictions.
(2) Material to which this section applies that is
held by a law enforcement authority in England and Wales or Northern Ireland may
be retained by that authority and used—
(a) in
the interests of national security,
(b) for
purposes related to the prevention or detection of crime, the investigation of
an offence or the conduct of a prosecution, or
(c) for
purposes related to the identification of a deceased person or of the person
from whom the material came,
if the following condition is met.
(3) The
condition is that the material has been—
(a) obtained by the authority—
(i) pursuant to an authorisation under Part 3 of the
Police Act 1997 (c.
50) (authorisation of action in respect of property), or
(ii) in
the course of surveillance, or use of a covert human intelligence source,
authorised under Part 2 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c.
23),
(b) supplied to the authority by another law
enforcement authority, or
(c) otherwise lawfully obtained or acquired by the
authority for any of the purposes mentioned in subsection (2).
(4) In
subsection (2)—
(a) the
reference to using material includes allowing a check to be made against it, or
against information derived from it, or disclosing it to any person;
(b) the
reference to crime includes any conduct that—
(i) constitutes a criminal offence (whether under the
law of a part of the United Kingdom or of a country or territory outside the
United Kingdom), or
(ii) is, or corresponds to, conduct that, if it took
place in the United Kingdom, would constitute a criminal offence;
(c) the
references to investigation and prosecution include, respectively, the
investigation outside the United Kingdom of a crime or suspected crime and a
prosecution brought in respect of a crime in a country or territory outside the
United Kingdom.
(5) In
this section—
-
“DNA sample” means any material that
has come from a human body and consists of or includes human cells;
-
“DNA profile” means any information
derived from a DNA sample;
-
“fingerprints” means a record (in any
form and produced by any method) of the skin pattern and other physical
characteristics or features of a person’s fingers or either of a person’s
palms;
-
“law enforcement authority” means a
police force, the Serious Organised Crime Agency or the Commissioners for Her
Majesty’s Revenue and Customs or an authority having functions under the law of
a country or territory outside the United Kingdom—
(a)
corresponding to those of a police
force, or
(b)
otherwise involving the investigation
or prosecution of offences;
-
“police force” means any of the
following—
(a)
the metropolitan police
force;
(b)
a police force maintained under section
2 of the Police Act 1996 (c. 16) (police forces in England and Wales outside
London);
(c)
the City of London police
force;
(d)
any police force maintained under or by
virtue of section 1 of the Police (Scotland) Act 1967 (c. 77);
(e)
the Police Service of Northern
Ireland;
(f)
the Police Service of Northern Ireland
Reserve;
(g)
the Ministry of Defence
Police;
(h)
the Royal Navy Police;
(i)
the Royal Military Police;
(j)
the Royal Air Force Police;
(k)
the British Transport
Police.
(6) The
following are “the existing statutory restrictions” referred to in subsection
(1)—
(a) sections 63A and 64 of the Police and Criminal
Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60);
(b) Articles 63A and 64 of the Police and Criminal
Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I.
12));
(c) paragraph 14 or 20(3) of Schedule 8 to the
Terrorism Act 2000
(c. 11);
(d) section 2(2) of the Security Service Act 1989 (c.
5);
(e) section 1(2) of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (c.
13).
Disclosure
of information and the intelligence services
19 Disclosure and the intelligence
services
(1) A
person may disclose information to any of the intelligence services for the
purposes of the exercise by that service of any of its functions.
(2) Information obtained by any of the intelligence
services in connection with the exercise of any of its functions may be used by
that service in connection with the exercise of any of its other
functions.
(3) Information obtained by the Security Service for
the purposes of any of its functions may be disclosed by it—
(a) for
the purpose of the proper discharge of its functions,
(b) for
the purpose of the prevention or detection of serious crime, or
(c) for
the purpose of any criminal proceedings.
(4) Information obtained by the Secret Intelligence
Service for the purposes of any of its functions may be disclosed by it—
(a) for
the purpose of the proper discharge of its functions,
(b) in
the interests of national security,
(c) for
the purpose of the prevention or detection of serious crime, or
(d) for
the purpose of any criminal proceedings.
(5) Information obtained by GCHQ for the purposes
of any of its functions may be disclosed by it—
(a) for
the purpose of the proper discharge of its functions, or
(b) for
the purpose of any criminal proceedings.
(6) A
disclosure under this section does not breach—
(a) any
obligation of confidence owed by the person making the disclosure, or
(b) any
other restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed).
(7) The
provisions of this section are subject to section 20 (savings and other
supplementary provisions).
20 Disclosure
and the intelligence services: supplementary provisions
(1) The
provisions of section 19 (disclosure and use of information) do not affect the
duties with respect to the obtaining or disclosure of information
imposed—
(a) on
the Director-General of the Security Service, by section 2(2) of the Security
Service Act 1989;
(b) on
the Chief of the Intelligence Service, by section 2(2) of the Intelligence
Services Act 1994;
(c) on
the Director of GCHQ, by section 4(2) of that Act.
(2) Nothing in that section authorises a disclosure
that—
(a) contravenes the Data Protection Act 1998 (c. 29),
or
(b) is
prohibited by Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c.
23).
(3) The
provisions of that section are without prejudice to any rule of law authorising
the obtaining, use or disclosure of information by any of the intelligence
services.
(4) Schedule 1 contains amendments consequential on
that section.
21 Disclosure
and the intelligence services: interpretation
(1) In
sections 19 and 20 “the intelligence services” means the Security Service, the
Secret Intelligence Service and GCHQ.
(2) References in section 19 to the functions of
those services are—
(a) in
the case of the Security Service, to the functions specified in section 1(2) to
(4) of the Security Service Act 1989 (c.
5);
(b) in
the case of the Secret Intelligence Service, to the functions specified in
section 1(1)(a) and (b) of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (c. 13),
exercised in accordance with section 1(2) of that Act;
(c) in
the case of GCHQ—
(i) to
the functions specified in section 3(1)(a) of that Act, exercised in accordance
with section 3(2) of that Act, and
(ii) to
the functions specified in section 3(1)(b) of that Act.
(3) In
sections 19, 20 and this section “GCHQ” has the same meaning as in the
Intelligence Services Act 1994 (see section 3(3) of that Act).
(4) Section 81(5) of the Regulation of Investigatory
Powers Act 2000 (meaning of “prevention” and “detection”), so far as it relates
to serious crime, applies for the purposes of section 19 as it applies for the
purposes of the provisions of that Act not contained in Chapter 1 of Part 1.
Part 2
Post-charge questioning of
terrorist suspects
22 Post-charge questioning: England and
Wales
(1) The
following provisions apply in England and Wales.
(2) A
judge of the Crown Court may authorise the questioning of a person about an
offence—
(a) after the person has been charged with the
offence or been officially informed that they may be prosecuted for it,
or
(b) after the person has been sent for trial for the
offence,
if the offence is a terrorism offence or it appears
to the judge that the offence has a terrorist connection.
(3) The
judge—
(a) must specify the period during which questioning
is authorised, and
(b) may
impose such conditions as appear to be necessary in the interests of justice,
which may include conditions as to the place where the questioning is to be
carried out.
(4) The
period during which questioning is authorised—
(a) begins when questioning pursuant to the
authorisation begins and runs continuously from that time (whether or not
questioning continues), and
(b) must not exceed 48 hours.
This is without prejudice to any application for a
further authorisation under this section.
(5) Where the person is in prison or otherwise
lawfully detained, the judge may authorise the person’s removal to another place
and detention there for the purpose of being questioned.
(6) A
judge must not authorise the questioning of a person under this section unless
satisfied—
(a) that further questioning of the person is
necessary in the interests of justice,
(b) that the investigation for the purposes of which
the further questioning is proposed is being conducted diligently and
expeditiously, and
(c) that what is authorised will not interfere unduly
with the preparation of the person’s defence to the charge in question or any
other criminal charge.
(7) Codes of practice under section 66 of the Police
and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) must make provision about the questioning
of a person by a constable in accordance with this section.
(8) Nothing in this section prevents codes of
practice under that section making other provision for the questioning of a
person by a constable about an offence—
(a) after the person has been charged with the
offence or been officially informed that they may be prosecuted for it,
or
(b) after the person has been sent for trial for the
offence.
(9) In
section 34(1) of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 (c. 33)
(effect of accused’s failure to mention facts when questioned or charged:
circumstances in which the section applies) after paragraph (b) insert— “; or
(c) at any time after being charged with the
offence, on being questioned under section 22 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008
(post-charge questioning), failed to mention any such fact,”.
(10) Nothing in section 36 or 37 of that Act (effect
of accused’s failure or refusal to account for certain matters) is to be read as
excluding the operation of those sections in relation to a request made in the
course of questioning under this section.
23 Post-charge
questioning: Scotland
(1) The
following provisions apply in Scotland.
(2) On
the application of the prosecutor, a sheriff may authorise the questioning of a
person about an offence—
(a) after the person has been charged with the
offence, or
(b) after the person has appeared on petition in
respect of the offence,
if the offence is a terrorism offence or it appears
to the sheriff that the offence has a terrorist connection.
(3) The
sheriff—
(a) must specify the period during which questioning
is authorised, and
(b) may
impose such conditions as appear to be necessary in the interests of justice,
which may include conditions as to the place where the questioning is to be
carried out.
(4) The
period during which questioning is authorised—
(a) begins when questioning pursuant to the
authorisation begins and runs continuously from that time (whether or not
questioning continues), and
(b) must not exceed 48 hours.
This is without prejudice to any application for a
further authorisation under this section.
(5) Where the person is in prison or otherwise
lawfully detained, the sheriff may authorise the person’s removal to another
place and detention there for the purpose of being questioned.
(6) A
sheriff must not authorise the questioning of a person under this section unless
satisfied—
(a) that further questioning of the person is
necessary in the interests of justice,
(b) that the investigation for the purposes of which
the further questioning is proposed is being conducted diligently and
expeditiously, and
(c) that what is authorised will not interfere unduly
with the preparation of the person’s defence to the charge in question or any
other criminal charge.
(7) Evidence of any statement obtained from a person
as a result of questioning under this section is not inadmissible solely because
the questioning occurred after the person had been charged (or had appeared on
petition).
(8) In
this section “charged” means charged by the police.
24 Post-charge
questioning: Northern Ireland
(1) The
following provisions apply in Northern Ireland.
(2) A
district judge (magistrates' courts) may authorise the questioning of a person
about an offence—
(a) after the person has been charged with the
offence or been officially informed that they may be prosecuted for it,
or
(b) after the person has been committed for trial for
the offence,
if the offence is a terrorism offence.
(3) The
judge—
(a) must specify the period during which questioning
is authorised, and
(b) may
impose such conditions as appear to the judge to be necessary in the interests
of justice, which may include conditions as to the place where the questioning
is to be carried out.
(4) The
period during which questioning is authorised—
(a) begins when questioning pursuant to the
authorisation begins and runs continuously from that time (whether or not
questioning continues), and
(b) must not exceed 48 hours.
This is without prejudice to any application for a
further authorisation under this section.
(5) Where the person is in prison or otherwise
lawfully detained, the judge may authorise the person’s removal to another place
and detention there for the purpose of being questioned.
(6) A
district judge (magistrates' courts) must not authorise the questioning of a
person under this section unless satisfied—
(a) that further questioning of the person is
necessary in the interests of justice,
(b) that the investigation for the purposes of which
the further questioning is proposed is being conducted diligently and
expeditiously, and
(c) that what is authorised will not interfere unduly
with the preparation of the person’s defence to the charge in question or any
other criminal charge.
(7) Codes of practice under Article 65 of the Police
and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12))
must make provision about the questioning of a person by a constable in
accordance with this section.
(8) Nothing in this section prevents codes of
practice under that Article making other provision for the questioning of a
person by a constable about an offence—
(a) after the person has been charged with the
offence or been officially informed that they may be prosecuted for it,
or
(b) after the person has been committed for trial for
the offence.
(9) In
Article 3(1) of the Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1988 (S.I. 1988/1987 (N.I. 20))
(effect of accused’s failure to mention facts when questioned or charged:
circumstances in which the article applies) after sub-paragraph (b) insert—
“;
or
(c) at any time after being charged with the
offence, on being questioned under section 24 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008
(post-charge questioning), failed to mention any such fact,”.
(10) Nothing in Article 5 or 6 of that Order (effect
of accused’s failure or refusal to account for certain matters) is to be read as
excluding the operation of those Articles in relation to a request made in the
course of questioning under this section.
25 Recording of
interviews
(1) This section applies to any interview of a person
by a constable under section 22, 23 or 24 (post-charge questioning).
(2) Any
such interview must be video recorded, and the video recording must be with
sound.
(3) The
Secretary of State must issue a code of practice about the video recording of
interviews to which this section applies.
(4) The
interview and video recording must be conducted in accordance with that code of
practice.
(5) A
code of practice under this section—
(a) may
make provision in relation to a particular part of the United Kingdom,
and
(b) may
make different provision for different parts of the United Kingdom.
26 Issue and
revision of code of practice
(1) This section applies to the code of practice
under section 25 (recording of interviews).
(2) The
Secretary of State must—
(a) publish a draft of the proposed code, and
(b) consider any representations made about the
draft,
and may modify the draft in the light of the
representations made.
(3) The
Secretary of State must lay a draft of the code before Parliament.
(4) After laying the draft code before Parliament the
Secretary of State may bring it into operation by order.
(5) The
order is subject to affirmative resolution procedure.
(6) The
Secretary of State may revise a code and issue the revised code, and subsections
(2) to (5) apply to a revised code as they apply to an original code.
(7) Failure to observe a provision of a code does not
of itself render a constable liable to criminal or civil proceedings.
(8) A
code—
(a) is
admissible in evidence in criminal and civil proceedings, and
(b) shall be taken into account by a court or
tribunal in any case in which it appears to the court or tribunal to be
relevant.
27 Meaning of
“terrorism offence”
(1) For
the purposes of sections 22 to 24 (post-charge questioning) the following are
terrorism offences—
(a) an
offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c.
11)—
-
sections 11 to 13 (offences relating to
proscribed organisations),
-
sections 15 to 19, 21A and 21D
(offences relating to terrorist property),
-
sections 38B and 39 (disclosure of and
failure to disclose information about terrorism),
-
section 54 (weapons training),
-
sections 56 to 58A (directing
terrorism, possessing things and collecting information for the purposes of
terrorism),
-
sections 59 to 61 (inciting terrorism
outside the United Kingdom),
-
paragraph 14 of Schedule 5 (order for
explanation of material: false or misleading statements),
-
paragraph 1 of Schedule 6 (failure to
provide customer information in connection with a terrorist investigation),
-
paragraph 18 of Schedule 7 (offences in
connection with port and border controls);
(b) an
offence in respect of which there is jurisdiction by virtue of any of sections
62 to 63D of that Act (extra-territorial jurisdiction in respect of certain
offences committed outside the United Kingdom for the purposes of terrorism
etc);
(c) an
offence under section 113 of the Anti-Terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (use
of noxious substances or things);
(d) an
offence under any of the following provisions of Part 1 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c.
11)—
-
sections 1 and 2 (encouragement of
terrorism),
-
sections 5, 6 and 8 (preparation and
training for terrorism),
-
sections 9, 10 and 11 (offences
relating to radioactive devices and material and nuclear
facilities);
(e) an
offence in respect of which there is jurisdiction by virtue of section 17 of
that Act (extra-territorial jurisdiction in respect of certain offences
committed outside the United Kingdom for the purposes of terrorism etc);
(f) an
offence under paragraph 8 or 9 of Schedule 3 to the Justice and Security
(Northern Ireland) Act 2007 (c. 6) (offences in connection with searches for munitions
and transmitters in Northern Ireland).
(2) Any
ancillary offence in relation to an offence listed in subsection (1) is a
terrorism offence for the purposes of sections 22 to 24.
(3) The
Secretary of State may by order amend subsection (1).
(4) Any
such order is subject to affirmative resolution procedure.
Expand
All Explanatory Notes (ENs)
Part 3
Prosecution and punishment of
terrorist offences
Jurisdiction
28 Jurisdiction to try offences committed in the
UK
(1) Where an offence to which this section applies is
committed in the United Kingdom—
(a) proceedings for the offence may be taken at any
place in the United Kingdom, and
(b) the
offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at
any such place.
(2) The
section applies to—
(a) an
offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c.
11)—
-
sections 11 to 13 (offences relating to
proscribed organisations),
-
sections 15 to 19, 21A and 21D
(offences relating to terrorist property),
-
sections 38B and 39 (disclosure of and
failure to disclose information about terrorism),
-
section 47 (offences relating to stop
and search powers),
-
section 51 (parking a vehicle in
contravention of an authorisation or restriction),
-
section 54 (weapons training),
-
sections 56 to 58A (directing terrorism
and possessing things or collecting information for the purposes of
terrorism),
-
section 116 (failure to stop a vehicle
when required to do so),
-
paragraph 1 of Schedule 6 (failure to
provide customer information in connection with a terrorist investigation),
-
paragraph 18 of Schedule 7 (offences in
connection with port and border controls);
(b) an
offence under section 113 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (use
of noxious substances or things to cause harm and intimidate);
(c) an
offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c.
11)—
-
sections 1 and 2 (encouragement of
terrorism),
-
sections 5, 6 and 8 (preparation and
training for terrorism),
-
sections 9, 10 and 11 (offences
relating to radioactive devices etc).
(3) The
Secretary of State may by order amend subsection (2).
(4) Any
such order is subject to affirmative resolution procedure.
(5) The
power conferred by subsection (3) may be exercised so as to add offences to
subsection (2) only if it appears to the Secretary of State necessary to do so
for the purpose of dealing with terrorism.
(6) In
section 1 of the Justice and Security (Northern Ireland) Act 2007 (c. 6) (issue
of certificate for trial without a jury), after subsection (6) insert—
“(6A) The Director of Public Prosecutions for
Northern Ireland may not issue a certificate under subsection (2) if—
(a) the proceedings are taken in Northern
Ireland only by virtue of section 28 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008,
and
(b) it appears to the Director that the only
condition that is met is condition 4.”.
Consent to
prosecution
29 Consent
to prosecution of offence committed outside UK
In section 117(2A) of the
Terrorism Act 2000
(c. 11) and in section 19(2) of the Terrorism Act 2006 (cases in which
permission of Attorney General or Advocate General for Northern Ireland required
before DPP gives
consent to prosecution), after “committed” insert “outside the United Kingdom
or”.
Sentencing
30 Sentences for offences with a terrorist
connection: England and Wales
(1) This section applies where a court in England and
Wales is considering for the purposes of sentence the seriousness of an offence
specified in Schedule 2 (offences where terrorist connection to be
considered).
(2) If
having regard to the material before it for the purposes of sentencing it
appears to the court that the offence has or may have a terrorist connection,
the court must determine whether that is the case.
(3) For
that purpose the court may hear evidence, and must take account of any
representations made by the prosecution and the defence, as in the case of any
other matter relevant for the purposes of sentence.
(4) If
the court determines that the offence has a terrorist connection, the
court—
(a) must treat that fact as an aggravating factor,
and
(b) must state in open court that the offence was so
aggravated.
(5) In
this section “sentence”, in relation to an offence, includes any order made by a
court when dealing with a person in respect of the offence.
(6) This section has effect in relation only to
offences committed on or after the day it comes into force.
31 Sentences
for offences with a terrorist connection: Scotland
(1) This section applies where in Scotland, in
relation to an offence specified in Schedule 2 (offences where terrorist
connection to be considered)—
(a) it
is libelled in an indictment, and
(b) proved,
that the offence has been aggravated by reason of
having a terrorist connection.
(2) Where this section applies, the court must take
the aggravation into account in determining the appropriate sentence.
(3) Where the sentence imposed by the court in
respect of the offence is different from that which the court would have imposed
if the offence had not been aggravated by reason of having a terrorist
connection, the court must state the extent of, and the reasons for, the
difference.
(4) For
the purposes of this section, evidence from a single source is sufficient to
prove that an offence has been aggravated by reason of having a terrorist
connection.
(5) This section has effect in relation only to
offences committed on or after the day it comes into force.
32 Sentences
for offences with a terrorist connection: armed forces
(1) This section applies where a service court is
considering for the purposes of sentence the seriousness of a service offence as
respects which the corresponding civil offence is an offence specified in
Schedule 2.
(2) If
having regard to the material before it for the purposes of sentencing it
appears to the court that the offence has or may have a terrorist connection,
the court must determine whether that is the case.
(3) For
that purpose the court may hear evidence, and must take account of any
representations made by the prosecution and the defence, as in the case of any
other matter relevant for the purposes of sentence.
(4) If
the court determines that the offence has a terrorist connection, the
court—
(a) must treat that fact as an aggravating factor,
and
(b) must state in open court that the offence was so
aggravated.
(5) This section has effect in relation only to
offences committed on or after the day it comes into force.
33 Power to
amend list of offences where terrorist connection to be considered
(1) The
Secretary of State may by order amend Schedule 2 (offences where terrorist
connection to be considered).
(2) Any
such order is subject to affirmative resolution procedure.
(3) An
order adding an offence to that Schedule applies only in relation to offences
committed after the order comes into force.
Forfeiture
34 Forfeiture: terrorist property
offences
For section 23 of the
Terrorism Act 2000
(c. 11) (forfeiture) substitute—
“Forfeiture
23 Forfeiture: terrorist property
offences
(1) The court by or before which a person is
convicted of an offence under any of sections 15 to 18 may make a forfeiture
order in accordance with the provisions of this section.
(2) Where a person is convicted of an offence
under section 15(1) or (2) or 16, the court may order the forfeiture of any
money or other property which, at the time of the offence, the person had in
their possession or under their control and which—
(a) had been used for the purposes of
terrorism, or
(b) they intended should be used, or had
reasonable cause to suspect might be used, for those purposes.
(3) Where a person is convicted of an offence
under section 15(3) the court may order the forfeiture of any money or other
property which, at the time of the offence, the person had in their possession
or under their control and which—
(a) had been used for the purposes of
terrorism, or
(b) which, at that time, they knew or had
reasonable cause to suspect would or might be used for those purposes.
(4) Where a person is convicted of an offence
under section 17 or 18 the court may order the forfeiture of any money or other
property which, at the time of the offence, the person had in their possession
or under their control and which—
(a) had been used for the purposes of
terrorism, or
(b) was, at that time, intended by them to be
used for those purposes.
(5) Where a person is convicted of an offence
under section 17 the court may order the forfeiture of the money or other
property to which the arrangement in question related, and which—
(a) had been used for the purposes of
terrorism, or
(b) at the time of the offence, the person
knew or had reasonable cause to suspect would or might be used for those
purposes.
(6) Where a person is convicted of an offence
under section 18 the court may order the forfeiture of the money or other
property to which the arrangement in question related.
(7) Where a person is convicted of an offence
under any of sections 15 to 18, the court may order the forfeiture of any money
or other property which wholly or partly, and directly or indirectly, is
received by any person as a payment or other reward in connection with the
commission of the offence.”.
35 Forfeiture:
other terrorism offences and offences with a terrorist connection
(1) After section 23 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)
(forfeiture: terrorist property offences) insert—
“23A Forfeiture: other terrorism offences
and offences with a terrorist connection
(1) The court by or before which a person is
convicted of an offence to which this section applies may order the forfeiture
of any money or other property in relation to which the following conditions are
met—
(a) that it was, at the time of the offence,
in the possession or control of the person convicted; and
(b) that—
(i) it had been used for the purposes of
terrorism,
(ii) it was intended by that person that it
should be used for the purposes of terrorism, or
(iii) the court believes that it will be used
for the purposes of terrorism unless forfeited.
(2) This section applies to an offence
under—
(a) any of the following provisions of this
Act—
-
section 54 (weapons
training);
-
section 57, 58 or 58A
(possessing things and collecting information for the purposes of
terrorism);
-
section 59, 60 or 61 (inciting
terrorism outside the United Kingdom);
(b) any of the following provisions of Part 1
of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 11)—
-
section 2 (dissemination of
terrorist publications);
-
section 5 (preparation of
terrorist acts);
-
section 6 (training for
terrorism);
-
sections 9 to 11 (offences
involving radioactive devices or materials).
(3) This section applies to any ancillary
offence (as defined in section 94 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008) in relation
to an offence listed in subsection (2).
(4) This section also applies to an offence
specified in Schedule 2 to the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (offences where
terrorist connection to be considered) as to which—
(a) in England and Wales, the court dealing
with the offence has determined, in accordance with section 30 of that Act, that
the offence has a terrorist connection;
(b) in Scotland, it has been proved, in
accordance with section 31 of that Act, that the offence has a terrorist
connection.
(5) The Secretary of State may by order amend
subsection (2).
(6) An order adding an offence to subsection
(2) applies only in relation to offences committed after the order comes into
force.”.
(2) In
section 123 of that Act (orders and regulations)—
(a) in
subsection (4) (instruments subject to affirmative resolution procedure), after
paragraph (a) insert—
“(aa) section 23A(5);”;
(b) in
subsection (5), for “paragraph (b)” substitute “paragraph (aa) or (b)”.
36 Forfeiture:
supplementary provisions
After section 23A of the
Terrorism Act 2000
(c. 11) (inserted by section 35 above), insert—
“23B Forfeiture: supplementary
provisions
(1) Before making an order under section 23 or
23A, a court must give an opportunity to be heard to any person, other than the
convicted person, who claims to be the owner or otherwise interested in anything
which can be forfeited under that section.
(2) In considering whether to make an order
under section 23 or 23A in respect of any property, a court shall have regard
to—
(a) the value of the property, and
(b) the likely financial and other effects on
the convicted person of the making of the order (taken together with any other
order that the court contemplates making).
(3) A court in Scotland must not make an order
under section 23 or 23A except on the application of the prosecutor—
(a) in proceedings on indictment, when the
prosecutor moves for sentence, and
(b) in summary proceedings, before the court
sentences the accused;
and for the purposes of any appeal or review,
an order under either of those sections made by a court in Scotland is a
sentence.
(4) Schedule 4 makes further provision in
relation to forfeiture orders under section 23 or 23A.”.
37 Forfeiture:
application of proceeds to compensate victims
(1) In
Part 1 of Schedule 4 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)
(forfeiture orders: England and Wales), after paragraph 4 insert—
“Application of proceeds to compensate victims
4A (1) Where a court makes a forfeiture order in
a case where—
(a) the offender has been convicted of an
offence that has resulted in a person suffering personal injury, loss or damage,
or
(b) any such offence is taken into
consideration by the court in determining sentence,
the court may also order that an amount not
exceeding a sum specified by the court is to be paid to that person out of the
proceeds of the forfeiture.
(2) For this purpose the proceeds of the
forfeiture means the aggregate amount of—
(a) any forfeited money, and
(b) the proceeds of the sale, disposal or
realisation of any forfeited property, after deduction of the costs of the sale,
disposal or realisation,
reduced by the amount of any payment under
paragraph 2(1)(d) or 3(1).
(3) The court may make an order under this
paragraph only if it is satisfied that but for the inadequacy of the offender’s
means it would have made a compensation order under section 130 of the Powers of
Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 under which the offender would have been
required to pay compensation of an amount not less than the specified
amount.”.
(2) In
Part 2 of that Schedule (forfeiture orders: Scotland), after paragraph 17
insert—
“Application of proceeds to compensate victims
17A (1) Where a court makes a forfeiture order in
a case where—
(a) the offender has been convicted of an
offence that has resulted in a person suffering personal injury, loss or damage,
or
(b) any such offence is taken into
consideration by the court in determining sentence,
the court may also order that an amount not
exceeding a sum specified by the court is to be paid to that person out of the
proceeds of the forfeiture.
(2) For this purpose the proceeds of the
forfeiture means the aggregate amount of—
(a) any forfeited money, and
(b) the proceeds of the sale, disposal or
realisation of any forfeited property, after deduction of the costs of the sale,
disposal or realisation,
reduced by the amount of any payment under
paragraph 16(1)(c) or 17(2).
(3) The court may make an order under this
paragraph only if it is satisfied that but for the inadequacy of the offender’s
means it would have made a compensation order under section 249 of the Criminal
Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 under which the offender would have been required
to pay compensation of an amount not less than the specified amount.”.
(3) In
Part 3 of that Schedule (forfeiture orders: Northern Ireland), after paragraph
32 insert—
“Application of proceeds to compensate victims
32A (1) Where a court makes a forfeiture order in
a case where—
(a) the offender has been convicted of an
offence that has resulted in a person suffering personal injury, loss or damage,
or
(b) any such offence is taken into
consideration by the court in determining sentence,
the court may also order that an amount not
exceeding a sum specified by the court is to be paid to that person out of the
proceeds of the forfeiture.
(2) For this purpose the proceeds of the
forfeiture means the aggregate amount of—
(a) any forfeited money, and
(b) the proceeds of the sale, disposal or
realisation of any forfeited property, after deduction of the costs of the sale,
disposal or realisation,
reduced by the amount of any payment under
paragraph 30(1)(d) or 31(1).
(3) The court may make an order under this
paragraph only if it is satisfied that but for the inadequacy of the offender’s
means it would have made a compensation order under Article 14 of the Criminal
Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 1994 under which the offender would have been
required to pay compensation of an amount not less than the specified
amount.”.
38 Forfeiture:
other amendments
(1) For
section 120A of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)
(supplemental powers of the court in respect of forfeiture orders)
substitute—
“120A Supplementary powers of
forfeiture
(1) A court by or before which a person is
convicted of an offence under a provision mentioned in column 1 of the following
table may order the forfeiture of any item mentioned in column 2 in relation to
that offence.
Offence |
Items liable to
forfeiture |
Section 54 (weapons training) |
Anything that the court considers to
have been in the possession of the person for purposes connected with the
offence. |
Section 57 (possession for terrorist
purposes) |
Any article that is the subject
matter of the offence. |
Section 58 (collection of
information) |
Any document or record containing
information of the kind mentioned in subsection (1)(a) of that
section. |
Section 58A (eliciting, publishing
or communicating information about members of armed forces etc) |
Any document or record containing
information of the kind mentioned in subsection (1)(a) of that
section. |
(2) Before making an order under this section,
a court must give an opportunity to be heard to any person, other than the
convicted person, who claims to be the owner or otherwise interested in anything
which can be forfeited under this section.
(3) An order under this section does not come
into force until there is no further possibility of it being varied, or set
aside, on appeal (disregarding any power of a court to grant leave to appeal out
of time).
(4) Where a court makes an order under this
section, it may also make such other provision as appears to it to be necessary
for giving effect to the forfeiture, including, in particular, provision
relating to the retention, handling, disposal or destruction of what is
forfeited.
(5) Provision made by virtue of subsection (4)
may be varied at any time by the court that made it.
(6) The power of forfeiture under this section
is in addition to any power of forfeiture under section 23A.”.
(2) In
section 7 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 11), after subsection (6) insert—
“(7)
The power of forfeiture under this
section is in addition to any power of forfeiture under section 23A of the
Terrorism Act 2000.”.
(3) After section 11 of the Terrorism Act 2006
(terrorist threats relating to devices, materials or facilities) insert—
“11A Forfeiture of devices, materials or
facilities
(1) A court by or before which a person is
convicted of an offence under section 9 or 10 may order the forfeiture of any
radioactive device or radioactive material, or any nuclear facility, made or
used in committing the offence.
(2) A court by or before which a person is
convicted of an offence under section 11 may order the forfeiture of any
radioactive device or radioactive material, or any nuclear facility, which is
the subject of—
(a) a demand under subsection (1) of that
section, or
(b) a threat falling within subsection (3) of
that section.
(3) Before making an order under this section,
a court must give an opportunity to be heard to any person, other than the
convicted person, who claims to be the owner or otherwise interested in anything
which can be forfeited under this section.
(4) An order under this section does not come
into force until there is no further possibility of it being varied, or set
aside, on appeal (disregarding any power of a court to grant leave to appeal out
of time).
(5) Where a court makes an order under this
section, it may also make such other provision as appears to it to be necessary
for giving effect to the forfeiture, including, in particular, provision
relating to the retention, handling, disposal or destruction of what is
forfeited.
(6) Provision made by virtue of subsection (5)
may be varied at any time by the court that made it.
(7) The power of forfeiture under this section
is in addition to any power of forfeiture under section 23A of the Terrorism Act
2000.”.
39 Forfeiture:
consequential amendments
Schedule 3 contains amendments
consequential on those made by sections 34 to 38.
Part 4
Notification requirements
Introductory
40 Scheme
of this Part
(1) This Part imposes notification requirements on
persons dealt with in respect of certain offences—
(a) sections 41 to 43 specify the offences to which
this Part applies;
(b) sections 44 to 46 make provision as to the
sentences or orders triggering the notification requirements;
(c) sections 47 to 52 contain the notification
requirements; and
(d) section 53 makes provision as to the period for
which the requirements apply.
(2) This Part also provides for—
(a) orders applying the notification requirements to
persons dealt with outside the United Kingdom for corresponding foreign offences
(see section 57 and Schedule 4); and
(b) orders imposing restrictions on travel outside
the United Kingdom on persons subject to the notification requirements (see
section 58 and Schedule 5).
(3) Schedule 6 provides for the application of this
Part to service offences and related matters.
Offences
to which this Part applies
41 Offences to which this Part applies:
terrorism offences
(1) This Part applies to—
(a) an
offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c.
11)—
-
section 11 or 12 (offences relating to
proscribed organisations),
-
sections 15 to 18 (offences relating to
terrorist property),
-
section 38B (failure to disclose
information about acts of terrorism),
-
section 54 (weapons training),
-
sections 56 to 61 (directing terrorism,
possessing things and collecting information for the purposes of terrorism and
inciting terrorism outside the United Kingdom);
(b) an
offence in respect of which there is jurisdiction by virtue of any of sections
62 to 63D of that Act (extra-territorial jurisdiction in respect of certain
offences committed outside the United Kingdom for the purposes of terrorism
etc);
(c) an
offence under section 113 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (use
of noxious substances or things);
(d) an
offence under any of the following provisions of Part 1 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c.
11)—
-
sections 1 and 2 (encouragement of
terrorism),
-
sections 5, 6 and 8 (preparation and
training for terrorism),
-
sections 9, 10 and 11 (offences
relating to radioactive devices and material and nuclear
facilities);
(e) an
offence in respect of which there is jurisdiction by virtue of section 17 of
that Act (extra-territorial jurisdiction in respect of certain offences
committed outside the United Kingdom for the purposes of terrorism etc).
(2) This Part also applies to any ancillary offence
in relation to an offence listed in subsection (1).
(3) The
Secretary of State may by order amend subsection (1).
(4) Any
such order is subject to affirmative resolution procedure.
(5) An
order adding an offence applies only in relation to offences dealt with after
the order comes into force.
(6) An
order removing an offence has effect in relation to offences whenever dealt
with, whether before or after the order comes into force.
(7) Where an offence is removed from the list, a
person subject to the notification requirements by reason of that offence being
listed (and who is not otherwise subject to those requirements) ceases to be
subject to them when the order comes into force.
42 Offences to
which this Part applies: offences having a terrorist connection
(1) This Part applies to—
(a) an
offence as to which a court has determined under section 30 (sentences for
offences with a terrorist connection: England and Wales) that the offence has a
terrorist connection, and
(b) an
offence in relation to which section 31 applies (sentences for offences with
terrorist connection: Scotland).
(2) A
person to whom the notification requirements apply by virtue of such a
determination as is mentioned in subsection (1)(a) may appeal against it to the
same court, and subject to the same conditions, as an appeal against
sentence.
(3) If
the determination is set aside on appeal, the notification requirements are
treated as never having applied to that person in respect of the offence.
(4) Where an order is made under section 33 removing
an offence from the list in Schedule 2, a person subject to the notification
requirements by reason of that offence being so listed (and who is not otherwise
subject to those requirements) ceases to be subject to them when the order comes
into force.
43 Offences
dealt with before commencement
(1) This Part applies to a person dealt with for an
offence before the commencement of this Part only if—
(a) the
offence is on the commencement of this Part within section 41(1) or (2)
(offences to which this Part applies: terrorism offences), and
(b) immediately before the commencement of this Part
the person—
(i) is
imprisoned or detained in pursuance of the sentence passed or order made in
respect of the offence,
(ii) would be so imprisoned or detained but for being
unlawfully at large, absent without leave, on temporary leave or leave of
absence, or on bail pending an appeal, or
(iii) is on licence, having served the custodial part
of a sentence of imprisonment in respect of the offence.
(2) In
relation to a person dealt with for an offence before the commencement of this
Part—
(a) any
reference in this Part to a sentence or order under a specified statutory
provision includes a sentence or order under any corresponding earlier statutory
provision;
(b) any
reference in this Part to a person being or having been found to be under a
disability and to have done the act charged against them in respect of an
offence includes a reference to their being or having been found—
(i) unfit to be tried for the offence,
(ii) insane so that their trial for the offence cannot
or could not proceed, or
(iii) unfit to be tried and to have done the act
charged against them in respect of the offence.
Persons to
whom the notification requirements apply
44 Persons
to whom the notification requirements apply
The notification requirements
apply to a person who—
(a) is
aged 16 or over at the time of being dealt with for an offence to which this
Part applies, and
(b) is
made subject in respect of the offence to a sentence or order within section 45
(sentences or orders triggering notification requirements).
45 Sentences or
orders triggering notification requirements
(1) The
notification requirements apply to a person who in England and Wales—
(a) has
been convicted of an offence to which this Part applies and sentenced in respect
of the offence to—
(i) imprisonment or custody for life,
(ii) imprisonment or detention in a young offender
institution for a term of 12 months or more,
(iii) imprisonment or detention in a young offender
institution for public protection under section 225 of the Criminal Justice Act
2003 (c.
44),
(iv) detention for life or for a period of 12 months
or more under section 91 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6)
(offenders under 18 convicted of certain serious offences),
(v) a
detention and training order for a term of 12 months or more under section 100
of that Act (offenders under age of 18),
(vi) detention for public protection under section 226
of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (serious offences committed by persons under
18), or
(vii) detention during Her Majesty’s pleasure;
or
(b) has
been—
(i) convicted of an offence to which this Part
applies carrying a maximum term of imprisonment of 12 months or more,
(ii) found not guilty by reason of insanity of such an
offence, or
(iii) found to be under a disability and to have done
the act charged against them in respect of such an offence,
and made subject in respect of the offence to a
hospital order.
(2) The
notification requirements apply to a person who in Scotland—
(a) has
been convicted of an offence to which this Part applies and sentenced in respect
of the offence to—
(i) imprisonment or detention in a young offenders
institution for life,
(ii) imprisonment or detention in a young offenders
institution for a term of 12 months or more,
(iii) an order for lifelong restriction under section
210F of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c.
46),
(iv) detention without limit of time under section
205(2) of that Act (punishment for murder for offenders under 18), or
(v) detention for a period of 12 months or more under
section 208 of that Act (detention of children convicted on indictment);
or
(b) has
been—
(i) convicted of an offence to which this Part
applies carrying a maximum term of imprisonment of 12 months or more,
(ii) acquitted of such an offence on grounds of
insanity at the time of the act or omission constituting the offence, or
(iii) found, following an examination of facts under
section 55 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (insanity in bar of
trial: examination of facts) in relation to such an offence, to have done the
act or omission constituting the offence,
and made subject in respect of the offence to a
hospital order.
(3) The
notification requirements apply to a person who in Northern Ireland—
(a) has
been convicted of an offence to which this Part applies and sentenced in respect
of the offence to—
(i) imprisonment for life,
(ii) imprisonment or detention in a young offenders
centre for a term of 12 months or more,
(iii) an indeterminate custodial sentence under Article
13 of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 2008 (S.I. 2008/1216 (N.I. 1)),
(iv) an
extended custodial sentence under Article 14(5) of that Order (offenders under
21 convicted of certain offences),
(v) a
juvenile justice centre order under Article 39 of the Criminal Justice
(Children) (Northern Ireland) Order 1998 (S.I. 1998/1504 (N.I. 9)) for a period
of 12 months or more,
(vi) detention during the pleasure of the Secretary of
State under Article 45(1) of that Order (punishment of certain grave crimes
committed by a child), or
(vii) detention under Article 45(2) of that Order for a
period of 12 months or more (other serious offences committed by a child);
or
(b) has
been—
(i) convicted of an offence to which this Part
applies carrying a maximum term of imprisonment of 12 months or more,
(ii) found not guilty by reason of insanity of such an
offence, or
(iii) found to be unfit to be tried and to have done
the act charged against them in respect of such an offence,
and made subject in respect of the offence to a
hospital order.
(4) The
references in this section to an offence carrying a maximum term of imprisonment
of 12 months or more—
(a) are
to an offence carrying such a maximum term in the case of a person who has
attained the age of 21 (18 in relation to England and Wales), and
(b) include an offence carrying in the case of such a
person a maximum term of life imprisonment and an offence for which in the case
of such a person the sentence is fixed by law as life imprisonment.
(5) In
relation to any time before the coming into force of section 61 of the Criminal
Justice and Court Services Act 2000 (c. 43) subsection (4)(a) above has effect with the omission
of the words “(18 in relation to England and Wales)”.
46 Power to
amend specified terms or periods of imprisonment or detention
(1) The
Secretary of State may by order amend the provisions of section 45 referring to
a specified term or period of imprisonment or detention.
(2) An
order reducing a specified term or period has effect only in relation to persons
dealt with after the order comes into force.
(3) Where an order increases a specified term or
period—
(a) it
has effect in relation to persons dealt with at any time, whether before or
after the order comes into force, and
(b) a
person who would not have been subject to the notification requirements if the
order had been in force when the offence was dealt with (and who is not
otherwise subject to those requirements) ceases to be subject to the
requirements when the order comes into force.
(4) An
order under this section is subject to affirmative resolution procedure.
Notification requirements
47 Initial
notification
(1) A
person to whom the notification requirements apply must notify the following
information to the police within the period of three days beginning with the day
on which the person is dealt with in respect of the offence in question.
(2) The
information required is—
(a) date of birth;
(b) national insurance number;
(c) name on the date on which the person was dealt
with in respect of the offence (where the person used one or more other names on
that date, each of those names);
(d) home address on that date;
(e) name on the date on which notification is made
(where the person uses one or more other names on that date, each of those
names);
(f) home address on the date on which notification is
made;
(g) address of any other premises in the United
Kingdom at which, at the time the notification is made, the person regularly
resides or stays;
(h) any
prescribed information.
(3) In
subsection (2) “prescribed” means prescribed by regulations made by the
Secretary of State.
Such regulations are subject to affirmative
resolution procedure.
(4) In
determining the period within which notification is to be made under this
section, there shall be disregarded any time when the person is—
(a) remanded in or committed to custody by an order
of a court,
(b) serving a sentence of imprisonment or
detention,
(c) detained in a hospital, or
(d) detained under the Immigration Acts.
(5) This section does not apply to a person
who—
(a) is
subject to the notification requirements in respect of another offence (and does
not cease to be so subject before the end of the period within which
notification is to be made), and
(b) has
complied with this section in respect of that offence.
(6) In
the application of this section to a person dealt with for an offence before the
commencement of this Part who, immediately before commencement—
(a) would be imprisoned or detained in respect of the
offence but for being unlawfully at large, absent without leave, on temporary
leave or leave of absence, or on bail pending an appeal, or
(b) is
on licence, having served the custodial part of a sentence of imprisonment in
respect of the offence,
the reference in subsection (1) to the day on which
the person is dealt with in respect of the offence shall be read as a reference
to the commencement of this Part.
48 Notification
of changes
(1) A
person to whom the notification requirements apply who uses a name that has not
previously been notified to the police must notify the police of that
name.
(2) If
there is a change of the home address of a person to whom the notification
requirements apply, the person must notify the police of the new home
address.
(3) A
person to whom the notification requirements apply who resides or stays at
premises in the United Kingdom the address of which has previously not been
notified to the police—
(a) for
a period of 7 days, or
(b) for
two or more periods, in any period of 12 months, that taken together amount to 7
days,
must notify the police of the address of those
premises.
(4) A
person to whom the notification requirements apply who is released—
(a) from custody pursuant to an order of a
court,
(b) from imprisonment or detention pursuant to a
sentence of a court,
(c) from detention in a hospital, or
(d) from detention under the Immigration Acts,
must notify the police of that fact.
This does not apply if the person is at the same
time required to notify the police under section 47 (initial notification).
(5) A
person who is required to notify information within section 47(2)(h) (prescribed
information) must notify the police of the prescribed details of any prescribed
changes in that information.
(6) In
subsection (5) “prescribed” means prescribed by regulations made by the
Secretary of State.
Such regulations are subject to affirmative
resolution procedure.
(7) Notification under this section must be made
before the end of the period of three days beginning with the day on which the
event in question occurs.
Where subsection (3) applies that is the day with
which the period referred to in paragraph (a) or (b) (as the case may be)
ends.
(8) In
determining the period within which notification is to be made under this
section, there shall be disregarded any time when the person is—
(a) remanded in or committed to custody by an order
of a court,
(b) serving a sentence of imprisonment or
detention,
(c) detained in a hospital, or
(d) detained under the Immigration Acts.
(9) References in this section to previous
notification are to previous notification by the person under section 47
(initial notification), this section, section 49 (periodic re-notification) or
section 56 (notification on return after absence from UK).
(10) Notification under this section must be
accompanied by re-notification of the other information mentioned in section
47(2).
49 Periodic
re-notification
(1) A
person to whom the notification requirements apply must, within the period of
one year after last notifying the police in accordance with—
(a) section 47 (initial notification),
(b) section 48 (notification of change),
(c) this section, or
(d) section 56 (notification on return after absence
from UK),
re-notify to the police the information mentioned in
section 47(2).
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply if the period
referred to in that subsection ends at a time when the person is—
(a) remanded in or committed to custody by an order
of a court,
(b) serving a sentence of imprisonment or
detention,
(c) detained in a hospital, or
(d) detained under the Immigration Acts.
(3) In
that case section 48(4) and (10) (duty to notify of release and to re-notify
other information) apply when the person is released.
50 Method of
notification and related matters
(1) This section applies to notification
under—
(a) section 47 (initial notification),
(b) section 48 (notification of change),
(c) section 49 (periodic re-notification), or
(d) section 56 (notification on return after absence
from UK).
(2) Notification must be made by the person—
(a) attending at a police station in the person’s
local police area, and
(b) making an oral notification to a police officer
or to a person authorised for the purpose by the officer in charge of the
station.
(3) A
person making a notification under section 48 (notification of change) in
relation to premises referred to in subsection (3) of that section may make the
notification at a police station that would fall within subsection (2)(a) above
if the address of those premises were the person’s home address.
(4) The
notification must be acknowledged.
(5) The
acknowledgement must be in writing, and in such form as the Secretary of State
may direct.
(6) The
person making the notification must, if requested to do so by the police officer
or person to whom the notification is made, allow the officer or person
to—
(a) take the person’s fingerprints,
(b) photograph any part of the person, or
(c) do
both these things,
for the purpose of verifying the person’s
identity.
(7) In
the application of this section to Scotland, references to a police officer are
to be read as references to a constable.
51 Meaning of
“local police area”
(1) For
the purposes of section 50(2) (method of notification) a person’s “local police
area” means—
(a) the
police area in which the person’s home address is situated;
(b) in
the absence of a home address, the police area in which the home address last
notified is situated;
(c) in
the absence of a home address and of any such notification, the police area in
which the court of trial was situated.
(2) In
subsection (1)(c) “the court of trial” means—
(a) the
court by or before which the conviction or finding was made by virtue of which
the notification requirements apply to the person, or
(b) if
that conviction or finding was one substituted on an appeal or reference, the
court by or before which the proceedings were taken from which the appeal or
reference was brought.
(3) This section and section 50(2) apply in relation
to Northern Ireland as if Northern Ireland were a police area.
52 Travel
outside the United Kingdom
(1) The
Secretary of State may by regulations make provision requiring a person to whom
the notification requirements apply who leaves the United Kingdom—
(a) to
notify the police of their departure before they leave, and
(b) to
notify the police of their return if they subsequently return to the United
Kingdom.
(2) Notification of departure must disclose—
(a) the
date on which the person intends to leave the United Kingdom;
(b) the
country (or, if there is more than one, the first country) to which the person
will travel;
(c) the
person’s point of arrival (determined in accordance with the regulations) in
that country;
(d) any
other information required by the regulations.
(3) Notification of return must disclose such
information as is required by the regulations about the person’s return to the
United Kingdom.
(4) Notification under this section must be given in
accordance with the regulations.
(5) Regulations under this section are subject to
affirmative resolution procedure.
Period for
which notification requirements apply
53 Period
for which notification requirements apply
(1) The
period for which the notification requirements apply is—
(a) 30
years in the case of a person who—
(i) is
aged 18 or over at the time of conviction for the offence, and
(ii) receives in respect of the offence a sentence
within subsection (2);
(b) 15
years in the case of a person who—
(i) is
aged 18 or over at the time of conviction for the offence, and
(ii) receives in respect of the offence a sentence
within subsection (3);
(c) 10
years in any other case.
(2) The
sentences in respect of which a 30 year period applies are—
(a) in
England and Wales—
(i) imprisonment or custody for life,
(ii) imprisonment or detention in a young offender
institution for a term of 10 years or more,
(iii) imprisonment or detention in a young offender
institution for public protection under section 225 of the Criminal Justice Act
2003 (c.
44),
(iv) detention during Her Majesty’s pleasure;
(b) in
Scotland—
(i) imprisonment or detention in a young offenders
institution for life,
(ii) imprisonment or detention in a young offenders
institution for a term of 10 years or more,
(iii) an order for lifelong restriction under section
210F of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c.
46);
(c) in
Northern Ireland—
(i) imprisonment for life,
(ii) imprisonment for a term of 10 years or
more,
(iii) an indeterminate custodial sentence under Article
13 of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 2008 (S.I. 2008/1216 (N.I.
1)),
(iv) an
extended custodial sentence for a term of 10 years or more under Article 14(5)
of that Order (offenders under 21 convicted of certain offences),
(v) detention during the pleasure of the Secretary of
State under Article 45(1) of the Criminal Justice (Children) (Northern Ireland)
Order 1998 (S.I. 1998/1504 (N.I. 9)).
(3) The
sentences in respect of which a 15 year period applies are—
(a) in
England and Wales, imprisonment or detention in a young offender institution for
a term of 5 years or more but less than 10 years;
(b) in
Scotland, imprisonment or detention in a young offenders institution for a term
of 5 years or more but less than 10 years;
(c) in
Northern Ireland—
(i) imprisonment for a term of 5 years or more but
less than 10 years,
(ii) an
extended custodial sentence for a term of 5 years or more but less than 10 years
under Article 14(5) of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 2008 (S.I.
2008/1216 (N.I. 1)) (offenders under 21 convicted of certain offences).
(4) The
period begins with the day on which the person is dealt with for the
offence.
(5) If
a person who is the subject of a finding within section 45(1)(b)(iii),
(2)(b)(iii) or (3)(b)(iii) (finding of disability, etc) is subsequently tried
for the offence, the period resulting from that finding ends—
(a) if
the person is acquitted, at the conclusion of the trial;
(b) if
the person is convicted, when the person is again dealt with in respect of the
offence.
(6) For
the purposes of determining the length of the period—
(a) a
person who has been sentenced in respect of two or more offences to which this
Part applies to consecutive terms of imprisonment is treated as if sentenced, in
respect of each of the offences, to a term of imprisonment equal to the
aggregate of the terms; and
(b) a
person who has been sentenced in respect of two or more such offences to
concurrent terms of imprisonment (X and Y) that overlap for a period (Z) is
treated as if sentenced, in respect of each of the offences, to a term of
imprisonment equal to X plus Y minus Z.
(7) In
determining whether the period has expired, there shall be disregarded any
period when the person was—
(a) remanded in or committed to custody by an order
of a court,
(b) serving a sentence of imprisonment or
detention,
(c) detained in a hospital, or
(d) detained under the Immigration Acts.
Offences
in relation to notification
54 Offences relating to notification
(1) A
person commits an offence who—
(a) fails without reasonable excuse to comply
with—
-
section 47 (initial notification),
-
section 48 (notification of
changes),
-
section 49 (periodic
re-notification),
-
section 50(6) (taking of fingerprints
or photographs),
-
any regulations made under section
52(1) (travel outside United Kingdom), or
-
section 56 (notification on return
after absence from UK);
or
(b) notifies to the police in purported compliance
with—
-
section 47 (initial notification),
-
section 48 (notification of
changes),
-
section 49 (periodic
re-notification),
-
any regulations made under section
52(1) (travel outside United Kingdom), or
-
section 56 (notification on return
after absence from UK),
any information that the person knows to be
false.
(2) A
person guilty of an offence under this section is liable—
(a) on
summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine
not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;
(b) on
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years or a
fine or both.
(3) In
the application of subsection (2)(a)—
(a) in
England and Wales, in relation to an offence committed before the commencement
of section 154(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (c. 44),
or
(b) in
Northern Ireland,
for “12 months” substitute “6 months”.
(4) A
person—
(a) commits an offence under subsection (1)(a) above
on the day on which the person first fails without reasonable excuse to comply
with—
-
section 47 (initial notification),
-
section 48 (notification of
changes),
-
section 49 (periodic
re-notification),
-
any regulations made under section
52(1) (travel outside United Kingdom), or
-
section 56 (notification on return
after absence from UK), and
(b) continues to commit it throughout any period
during which the failure continues.
But a person must not be prosecuted under subsection
(1) more than once in respect of the same failure.
(5) Proceedings for an offence under this section may
be commenced in any court having jurisdiction in any place where the person
charged with the offence resides or is found.
55 Effect of
absence abroad
(1) If
a person to whom the notification requirements apply is absent from the United
Kingdom for any period the following provisions apply.
(2) During the period of absence the period for which
the notification requirements apply continues to run.
(3) The
period of absence does not affect the obligation under section 47 (initial
notification).
This is subject to subsection (4).
(4) Section 47 does not apply if—
(a) the
period of absence begins before the end of the period within which notification
must be made under that section, and
(b) the
person’s absence results from the person’s removal from the United
Kingdom.
(5) Section 48 (notification of changes)—
(a) applies in relation to an event that occurs
before the period of absence, but
(b) does not apply in relation to an event that
occurs during the period of absence.
Paragraph (a) is subject to subsection (6).
(6) Section 48 does not apply in relation to an event
that occurs before the period of absence if—
(a) the
period of absence begins before the end of the period within which notification
must be made under that section, and
(b) the
person’s absence results from the person’s removal from the United
Kingdom.
(7) Section 49 (periodic re-notification) does not
apply if the period referred to in subsection (1) of that section ends during
the period of absence.
(8) Section 53(7) (disregard of period of custody
etc) applies in relation to
the period of absence as if it referred to any period when the person
was—
(a) remanded in or committed to custody by an order
of a court outside the United Kingdom,
(b) serving a sentence of imprisonment or detention
imposed by such a court,
(c) detained in a hospital pursuant to an order of
such a court that is equivalent to a hospital order, or
(d) subject to a form of detention outside the United
Kingdom that is equivalent to detention under the Immigration Acts.
(9) References in this section and section 56 to a
person’s removal from the United Kingdom include—
(a) the
person’s removal from the United Kingdom in accordance with the Immigration
Acts,
(b) the
person’s extradition from the United Kingdom, or
(c) the
person’s transfer from the United Kingdom to another country pursuant to a
warrant under section 1 of the Repatriation of Prisoners Act 1984 (c.
47).
56 Notification
on return after absence from UK
(1) This section applies if, before the end of the
period for which the notification requirements apply, a person to whom the
requirements apply returns to the United Kingdom after a period of absence
and—
(a) the
person was not required to make a notification under section 47 (initial
notification),
(b) there has been a change to any of the information
last notified to the police in accordance with—
(i) section 47,
(ii) section 48 (notification of changes),
(iii) section 49 (periodic re-notification), or
(iv) this section, or
(c) the
period referred to in section 49(1) (period after which re-notification
required) ended during the period of absence.
(2) The
person must notify or (as the case may be) re-notify to the police the
information mentioned in section 47(2) within the period of three days beginning
with the day of return.
(3) In
determining the period within which notification is to be made under this
section, there shall be disregarded any time when the person is—
(a) remanded in or committed to custody by an order
of a court,
(b) serving a sentence of imprisonment or
detention,
(c) detained in a hospital, or
(d) detained under the Immigration Acts.
(4) This section does not apply if—
(a) the
person subsequently leaves the United Kingdom,
(b) the
period of absence begins before the end of the period within which notification
must be made under this section, and
(c) the
person’s absence results from the person’s removal from the United
Kingdom.
(5) The
obligation under this section does not affect any obligation to notify
information under section 52(3) (regulations requiring notification of return
etc).
Supplementary provisions
57 Notification orders
Schedule 4 makes provision for
notification orders applying the notification requirements of this Part to
persons who have been dealt with outside the United Kingdom in respect of a
corresponding foreign offence.
58 Foreign
travel restriction orders
Schedule 5 makes provision for
foreign travel restriction orders prohibiting persons to whom the notification
requirements apply from—
(a) travelling to a country outside the United
Kingdom named or described in the order,
(b) travelling to any country outside the United
Kingdom other than a country named or described in the order, or
(c) travelling to any country outside the United
Kingdom.
59 Application
of Part to service offences and related matters
Schedule 6 makes provision for
the application of this Part to service offences and related matters.
60 Minor
definitions for Part 4
In this Part—
-
“country” includes a territory;
-
“detained in a hospital” means detained
in a hospital under—
(a)
Part 3 of the Mental Health Act 1983
(c. 20),
(b)
Part 6 of the Criminal Procedure
(Scotland) Act 1995
(c. 46) or the Mental Health (Care and Treatment) (Scotland) Act 2003 (asp
13), or
(c)
Part 3 of the Mental Health (Northern
Ireland) Order (S.I. 1986/595
(N.I. 4));
-
“home address” means, in relation to a
person—
(a)
the address of the person’s sole or
main residence in the United Kingdom, or
(b)
where the person has no such residence,
the address or location of a place in the United Kingdom where the person can
regularly be found and, if there is more than one such place, such one of those
places as the person may select;
-
“hospital order” means—
(a)
a hospital order within the meaning of
the Mental Health Act 1983,
(b)
an order under Part 6 of the Criminal
Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995, or
(c)
a hospital order within the meaning of
the Mental Health (Northern Ireland) Order 1986 (S.I. 1986/595 (N.I.
4));
-
“passport” means—
(a)
a United Kingdom passport within the
meaning of the Immigration Act 1971 (c. 77), or
(b)
a passport issued by or on behalf of
the authorities of a country outside the United Kingdom or by or on behalf of an
international organisation,
and includes any document that can be
used (in some or all circumstances) instead of a passport;
-
“photograph” includes any process by
means of which an image may be produced;
-
“release” from imprisonment or
detention includes release on licence but not temporary release.
61 References
to a person being “dealt with” for an offence
(1) References in this Part to a person being dealt
with for or in respect of an offence are to their being sentenced, or made
subject to a hospital order, in respect of the offence.
References in this Part to an offence being dealt
with are to a person being dealt with in respect of the offence.
(2) Subject to the following provisions of this
section, references in this Part to the time at which a person is dealt with for
an offence are to the time at which they are first dealt with—
(a) in
England and Wales, by a magistrates' court or the Crown Court;
(b) in
Scotland, by a sheriff or by the High Court of Justiciary;
(c) in
Northern Ireland, by the county court.
This is referred to below as “the original
decision”.
(3) Where the original decision is varied (on appeal
or otherwise), then—
(a) if
the result is that the conditions for application of the notification
requirements to a person in respect of an offence cease to be met (and paragraph
(c) below does not apply), the notification requirements are treated as never
having applied to that person in respect of that offence;
(b) if
the result is that the conditions for application of the notification
requirements to a person in respect of an offence are met where they were not
previously met (and paragraph (c) below does not apply)—
(i) the
person is treated as dealt with for the offence when the variation takes place,
and
(ii) the notification requirements apply
accordingly;
(c) if—
(i) a
conviction of, or finding in relation to, a different offence is substituted,
and
(ii) the conditions for application of the
notification requirements were met in respect of the original offence and are
also met in respect of the substituted offence,
the person is treated as if they had been dealt with
for the substituted offence at the time of the original decision;
(d) if
the sentence is varied so as to become one by virtue of which the notification
requirements would apply for a different period, the period for which those
requirements apply shall be determined as if the sentence as varied had been
imposed at the time of the original decision;
(e) in
any other case, the variation is disregarded.
(4) For
the purposes of—
(a) section 41(5) (effect of order adding offence to
list of terrorism offences),
(b) section 44(a) or paragraph 4(a) of Schedule 6
(persons subject to notification requirements: age when dealt with for
offence),
(c) section 46(2) or paragraph 6(2) of Schedule 6
(effect of order reducing term or period triggering notification
requirements),
(d) section 53(5)(b) or paragraph 7(5)(b) of Schedule
6 (period for which notification requirements apply: ending of period resulting
from finding of disability etc where person subsequently tried), and
(e) paragraph 2(3) of Schedule 5 (conditions for
making foreign travel restriction order: behaviour since offence dealt
with),
a person is treated as dealt with at the time of the
original decision and any subsequent variation of the decision is
disregarded.
(5) For
the purposes of—
(a) section 43(1) and (2) or paragraph 3(1) and (2)
of Schedule 6 (application of Part to offences dealt with before commencement),
and
(b) paragraph 2(4) of Schedule 5 (conditions for
making foreign travel restriction order where offence dealt with before
commencement),
a person is dealt with for an offence before the
commencement of this Part if the time of the original decision falls before the
commencement of this Part.
Where in such a case subsection (3) above applies
for the purposes of any provision of this Part, that subsection has effect as if
the provisions of this Part had been in force at all material times.
(6) In
section 47(6) (adaptation of initial notification requirements in case of
offence dealt with before commencement)—
(a) the
reference in the opening words to an offence dealt with before the commencement
of this Part is to an offence where the time of the original decision falls
before the commencement of this Part, and
(b) the
reference in the closing words to when the offence is dealt with has the same
meaning as in subsection (1) of that section.
(7) References in this section to the variation of a
decision include any proceedings by which the decision is altered, set aside or
quashed, or in which a further decision is come to following the setting aside
or quashing of the decision.
Part 5
Terrorist financing and money
laundering
62 Terrorist financing and money
laundering
Schedule 7 makes provision
conferring powers on the Treasury to act against terrorist financing, money
laundering and certain other activities.
Part 6
Financial restrictions
proceedings
Chapter 1 Application to set aside financial restrictions
decision
63 Application to set aside financial
restrictions decision
(1) This section applies to any decision of the
Treasury in connection with the exercise of any of their functions under—
(a) the
UN terrorism orders,
(b) Part 2 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security
Act 2001 (c.
24) (freezing orders), or
(c) Schedule 7 to this Act (terrorist financing,
money laundering and certain other activities: financial restrictions).
(2) Any
person affected by the decision may apply to the High Court or, in Scotland, the
Court of Session to set aside the decision.
(3) In
determining whether the decision should be set aside the court shall apply the
principles applicable on an application for judicial review.
(4) If
the court decides that a decision should be set aside it may make any such
order, or give any such relief, as may be made or given in proceedings for
judicial review.
(5) Without prejudice to the generality of subsection
(4), if the court sets aside a decision of the Treasury—
(a) to
give a direction under any of the UN terrorism orders,
(b) to
make a freezing order under Part 2 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act
2001 (c. 24),
or
(c) to
give a direction or make an order under Schedule 7 to this Act,
the court must quash the relevant direction or
order.
(6) This section applies whether the decision of the
Treasury was made before or after the commencement of this section.
(7) After the commencement of this section an
application to set aside a decision of the Treasury to which this section
applies must be made under this section.
(8) This section does not apply to any decision of
the Treasury to make an order under paragraph 8 or 28(6) of Schedule 7 to this
Act.
64 UN terrorism
orders
(1) For
the purposes of section 63 the UN terrorism orders are—
(a) the
Terrorism (United Nations Measures) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/3365);
(b) the
Al-Qa'ida and Taliban (United Nations Measures) Order 2002 (S.I.
2002/111);
(c) the
Terrorism (United Nations Measures) Order 2006 (S.I. 2006/2657);
(d) the
Al-Qaida and Taliban (United Nations Measures) Order 2006 (S.I.
2006/2952).
(2) The
Treasury may by order amend subsection (1) by—
(a) adding other Orders in Council made under section
1 of the United Nations Act 1946 (c. 45),
(b) providing that a reference to a specified Order
in Council is to that order as amended by a further Order in Council (made after
the passing of this Act), or
(c) removing an Order in Council.
(3) An
order under subsection (2) is subject to negative resolution procedure.
Chapter
2 Financial
restrictions proceedings
Introductory
65 Financial restrictions proceedings
In this Chapter “financial
restrictions proceedings” means proceedings in the High Court or the Court of
Session on an application under section 63 or on a claim arising from any matter
to which such an application relates.
Rules of
court, disclosure and related matters
66 General
provisions about rules of court
(1) The
following provisions apply to rules of court relating to—
(a) financial restrictions proceedings, or
(b) proceedings on an appeal relating to financial
restrictions proceedings.
(2) A
person making rules of court must have regard to—
(a) the
need to secure that the decisions that are the subject of the proceedings are
properly reviewed; and
(b) the
need to secure that disclosures of information are not made where they would be
contrary to the public interest.
(3) Rules of court may make provision—
(a) about the mode of proof and about evidence in the
proceedings;
(b) enabling or requiring the proceedings to be
determined without a hearing; and
(c) about legal representation in the
proceedings.
(4) Rules of court may make provision—
(a) enabling the proceedings to take place without
full particulars of the reasons for the decisions to which the proceedings
relate being given to a party to the proceedings (or to any legal representative
of that party);
(b) enabling the court to conduct proceedings in the
absence of any person, including a party to the proceedings (or any legal
representative of that party);
(c) about the functions of a person appointed as a
special advocate;
(d) enabling the court to give a party to the
proceedings a summary of evidence taken in the party’s absence.
(5) In
this section—
(a) references to a party to the proceedings do not
include the Treasury;
(b) references to a party’s legal representative do
not include a person appointed as a special advocate.
(6) Nothing in this section shall be read as
restricting the power to make rules of court or the matters to be taken into
account when doing so.
67 Rules of
court about disclosure
(1) The
following provisions apply to rules of court relating to—
(a) financial restrictions proceedings, or
(b) proceedings on an appeal relating to financial
restrictions proceedings.
(2) Rules of court must secure that the Treasury are
required to disclose—
(a) material on which they rely,
(b) material which adversely affects their case,
and
(c) material which supports the case of a party to
the proceedings.
This is subject to the following provisions of this
section.
(3) Rules of court must secure—
(a) that the Treasury have the opportunity to make an
application to the court for permission not to disclose material otherwise than
to—
(i)
the court, and
(ii) any person appointed as a special
advocate;
(b) that such an application is always considered in
the absence of every party to the proceedings (and every party’s legal
representative);
(c) that the court is required to give permission for
material not to be disclosed if it considers that the disclosure of the material
would be contrary to the public interest;
(d) that, if permission is given by the court not to
disclose material, it must consider requiring the Treasury to provide a summary
of the material to every party to the proceedings (and every party’s legal
representative);
(e) that the court is required to ensure that such a
summary does not contain material the disclosure of which would be contrary to
the public interest.
(4) Rules of court must secure that in cases where
the Treasury—
(a) do
not receive the court’s permission to withhold material, but elect not to
disclose it, or
(b) are
required to provide a party to the proceedings with a summary of material that
is withheld, but elect not to provide the summary,
provision to the following effect applies.
(5) The
court must be authorised—
(a) if
it considers that the material or anything that is required to be summarised
might adversely affect the Treasury’s case or support the case of a party to the
proceedings, to direct that the Treasury shall not rely on such points in their
case, or shall make such concessions or take such other steps, as the court may
specify, or
(b) in
any other case, to ensure that the Treasury do not rely on the material or (as
the case may be) on that which is required to be summarised.
(6) Nothing in this section, or in rules of court
made under it, is to be read as requiring the court to act in a manner
inconsistent with Article 6 of the Human Rights Convention.
(7) In
this section—
(a) references to a party to the proceedings do not
include the Treasury;
(b) references to a party’s legal representative do
not include a person appointed as a special advocate; and
(c) “the Human Rights Convention” means the
Convention within the meaning of the Human Rights Act 1998 (c. 42) (see
section 21(1) of that Act).
68 Appointment
of special advocate
(1) The
relevant law officer may appoint a person to represent the interests of a party
to—
(a) financial restrictions proceedings, or
(b) proceedings on an appeal, or further appeal,
relating to financial restrictions proceedings,
in any of those proceedings from which the party
(and any legal representative of the party) is excluded.
This is referred to in this Chapter as appointment
as “a special advocate”.
(2) A
person appointed as a special advocate is not responsible to the party to the
proceedings whose interests the person is appointed to represent.
(3) The
relevant law officer is—
(a) in
relation to financial restrictions proceedings in England and Wales, or on an
appeal or further appeal relating to such proceedings, the Attorney
General;
(b) in
relation to financial restrictions proceedings in Scotland, or on an appeal or
further appeal relating to such proceedings, the Advocate General for
Scotland;
(c) in
relation to financial restrictions proceedings in Northern Ireland, or on an
appeal or further appeal relating to such proceedings, the Advocate General for
Northern Ireland.
(4) A
person may be appointed as a special advocate only if—
(a) in
the case of an appointment by the Attorney General, the person has a general
legal qualification for the purposes of section 71 of the Courts and Legal
Services Act 1990
(c. 41);
(b) in
the case of an appointment by the Advocate General for Scotland, the person is
an advocate or a solicitor who has rights of audience in the Court of Session or
the High Court of Justiciary by virtue of section 25A of the Solicitors
(Scotland) Act 1980 (c. 46);
(c) in
the case of an appointment by the Advocate General for Northern Ireland, the
person is a member of the Bar of Northern Ireland.
(5) Until the coming into force of section 27 of the
Justice (Northern Ireland) Act 2002 (c. 26), references in this section to the Advocate General
for Northern Ireland are to be read as references to the Attorney General for
Northern Ireland.
The coming into force of that section does not
affect any appointment of a person as a special advocate made by the Attorney
General for Northern Ireland before that time.
69 Intercept
evidence
(1) Section 18 of the Regulation of Investigatory
Powers Act 2000 (c.
23) (exceptions to exclusion of intercepted communications etc from legal proceedings) is amended as
follows.
(2) In
subsection (1) (excepted proceedings), after paragraph (da) insert—
“(db) any financial restrictions proceedings as
defined in section 65 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008, or any proceedings
arising out of such proceedings;”.
(3) In
subsection (2) (persons to whom disclosure not to be made), after paragraph (za)
insert—
“(zb) in the case of proceedings falling within
paragraph (db), to—
(i) a person, other than the Treasury, who is
or was a party to the proceedings, or
(ii) any person who for the purposes of the
proceedings (but otherwise than by virtue of appointment as a special advocate)
represents a person falling within sub-paragraph (i);”.
70 Qualification of duty to give reasons
In paragraph 11 of
Schedule 3 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24)
(Treasury’s duty to give reason why person is specified in freezing order), make
the existing provision sub-paragraph (1) and after it insert—
“(2)
Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply if,
or to the extent that, particulars of the reason would not be required to be
disclosed to the applicant in proceedings to set aside the freezing order.”.
Supplementary provisions
71 Allocation of proceedings to Queen’s Bench
Division
In paragraph 2 of Schedule
1 to the Supreme Court Act 1981 (c. 54) (business allocated to the Queen’s Bench
Division), after sub-paragraph (ba) insert—
“(bb) all financial restrictions proceedings
within the meaning of Chapter 2 of Part 6 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (see
section 65 of that Act);”.
72 Initial
exercise of powers by Lord Chancellor
(1) The
first time after the passing of this Act that rules of court are made in
exercise of the powers conferred by this Chapter—
(a) in
relation to proceedings in England and Wales, or
(b) in
relation to proceedings in Northern Ireland,
they may be made by the Lord Chancellor instead of
by the person who would otherwise make them.
(2) Before making rules of court under this section,
the Lord Chancellor must consult—
(a) in
relation to rules applicable to proceedings in England and Wales, the Lord Chief
Justice of England and Wales;
(b) in
relation to rules applicable to proceedings in Northern Ireland, the Lord Chief
Justice of Northern Ireland.
The Lord Chancellor is not required to undertake any
other consultation before making the rules.
(3) The
requirements of subsection (2)(a) and (b) may be satisfied by consultation that
took place wholly or partly before the passing of this Act.
(4) Rules of court made by the Lord Chancellor under
this section—
(a) must be laid before Parliament, and
(b) if
not approved by a resolution of each House before the end of 40 days beginning
with the day on which they were made, cease to have effect at the end of that
period.
In reckoning the period of 40 days no account shall
be taken of any time during which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or during
which both Houses are adjourned for more than four days.
(5) If
rules cease to have effect in accordance with subsection (4)—
(a) that does not affect anything previously done in
reliance on the rules; and
(b) subsection (1) applies as if the rules had not
been made.
(6) The
following provisions do not apply to rules of court made by the Lord Chancellor
under this section—
(a) section 3(6) of the Civil Procedure Act 1997 (c. 12)
(Parliamentary procedure for civil procedure rules);
(b) section 56 of the Judicature (Northern Ireland)
Act 1978 (c. 23) (statutory rules procedure).
Until section 85 of the Courts Act 2003 (c. 39)
(process for making civil procedure rules) comes into force, in paragraph (a)
above for “section 3(6)” substitute “section 3(2)”.
73 Interpretation
In this Chapter—
-
“financial restrictions proceedings”
has the meaning given by section 65;
-
“rules of court” means rules for
regulating the practice and procedure to be followed in the High Court or the
Court of Appeal or in the Court of Session;
-
“special advocate” means a person
appointed under section 68.
Part 7
Miscellaneous
Inquiries
74 Inquiries: intercept evidence
(1) In
section 18 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23)
(exceptions to exclusion of intercepted communications etc from legal proceedings), in
subsection (7), for paragraph (c) substitute—
“(c)
a disclosure to the panel of an
inquiry held under the Inquiries Act 2005 or to a person appointed as counsel to
such an inquiry where, in the course of the inquiry, the panel has ordered the
disclosure to be made to the panel alone or (as the case may be) to the panel
and the person appointed as counsel to the inquiry; or”.
(2) This section has effect in relation to inquiries
under the Inquiries Act 2005 (c. 12) that have begun, but have not come to an end, before
the day on which it comes into force as well as to such inquiries beginning or
on after that day.
(3) Section 14 of the Inquiries Act 2005 (end of
inquiry) has effect for determining when an inquiry under that Act comes to an
end for those purposes.
Amendment
of definition of “terrorism” etc
75 Amendment of definition of “terrorism”
etc
(1) In
the provisions listed below (which define “terrorism”, or make similar
provision, and require that the use or threat of action is made for the purpose
of advancing a political, religious or ideological cause), after “religious”
insert “, racial”.
(2) The
provisions are—
(a) section 1(1)(c) of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c.
11),
(b) section 113A(2) of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and
Security Act 2001
(c. 24),
(c) paragraph 4(2)(c) of Schedule 21 to the Criminal
Justice Act 2003
(c. 44),
(d) Article 2(3)(c) of the Terrorism (United Nations
Measures) Order 2006 (S.I.
2006/2657),
(e) Article 4(1)(c) of the Anti-terrorism (Financial
and Other Measures) (Overseas Territories) Order 2002 (S.I. 2002/1822),
(f) Article 2(1)(a)(iii) of the Terrorism (United
Nations Measures) (Overseas Territories) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/3366),
(g) Article 3(1) of the Terrorism (United Nations
Measures) (Isle of Man) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/3364),
(h) Article 3(1) of the Terrorism (United Nations
Measures) (Channel Islands) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/3363).
Terrorist
offences
76 Offences relating to information about
members of armed forces etc
(1) After section 58 of the Terrorism Act 2000
(collection of information) insert—
“58A Eliciting, publishing or communicating
information about members of armed forces etc
(1) A person commits an offence who—
(a) elicits or attempts to elicit information
about an individual who is or has been—
(i) a member of Her Majesty’s forces,
(ii) a member of any of the intelligence
services, or
(iii) a constable,
which is of a kind likely to be useful to a
person committing or preparing an act of terrorism, or
(b) publishes or communicates any such
information.
(2) It is a defence for a person charged with
an offence under this section to prove that they had a reasonable excuse for
their action.
(3) A person guilty of an offence under this
section is liable—
(a) on conviction on indictment, to
imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or to a fine, or to both;
(b) on summary conviction—
(i) in England and Wales or Scotland, to
imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to a fine not exceeding the
statutory maximum, or to both;
(ii) in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a
term not exceeding 6 months or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum, or
to both.
(4) In this section “the intelligence
services” means the Security Service, the Secret Intelligence Service and
GCHQ (within
the meaning of section 3 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (c.
13)).
(5) Schedule 8A to this Act contains
supplementary provisions relating to the offence under this section.”.
(2) In
the application of section 58A in England and Wales in relation to an offence
committed before the commencement of section 154(1) of the Criminal Justice Act
2003 (c. 44)
the reference in subsection (3)(b)(i) to 12 months is to be read as a reference
to 6 months.
(3) In
section 118 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11)
(defences), in subsection (5)(a) after “58,” insert “58A,”.
(4) After Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 2000 insert
the Schedule set out in Schedule 8 to this Act.
77 Terrorist
property: disclosure of information about possible offences
(1) Part 3 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (terrorist
property) is amended as follows.
(2) In
section 19(1) (duty to disclose belief or suspicion that offence committed), in
paragraph (b) for “comes to his attention in the course of a trade, profession,
business or employment” substitute— “comes to his attention—
(i) in the course of a trade, profession or
business, or
(ii) in the course of his employment (whether
or not in the course of a trade, profession or business).”.
(3) After section 22 insert—
“22A Meaning of “employment”
In sections 19 to
21B—
(a) “employment” means any employment (whether
paid or unpaid) and includes—
(i) work under a contract for services or as
an office-holder,
(ii) work experience provided pursuant to a
training course or programme or in the course of training for employment,
and
(iii) voluntary work;
(b) “employer” has a corresponding
meaning.”.
(4) So
far as the amendment in subsection (3) above extends any provision of sections
19 to 21B of the Terrorism Act 2000 involving belief or suspicion to cases to
which that provision did not previously apply, that provision applies where the
belief or suspicion is held after subsection (3) above comes into force even if
based on information that came to the person’s attention before that subsection
was in force.
In any such case sections 19(2), 21(3) and 21A(4) of
that Act (duty to make disclosure as soon as is reasonably practicable) are to
be read as requiring the person to act as soon as is reasonably practicable
after subsection (3) above comes into force.
Control
orders
78 Control
orders: powers of entry and search
(1) After section 7 of the Prevention of Terrorism
Act 2005 (c. 2)
insert—
“7A Powers of entry and search:
absconding
(1) If a constable reasonably suspects that
the controlled person has absconded, the constable may enter (if necessary by
force) and search premises to which this section applies—
(a) for the purpose of determining whether the
person has absconded;
(b) if it appears that the person has
absconded, for material that may assist in the pursuit and arrest of the
controlled person.
(2) The premises to which this section applies
are—
(a) the controlled person’s place of
residence;
(b) other premises to which the controlled
person is required to grant access in accordance with an obligation imposed by
or under the control order;
(c) any premises—
(i) to which the controlled person has
previously been required to grant access in accordance with an obligation
imposed by or under a control order, and
(ii) with which there is reason to believe that
the controlled person is or was recently connected.
7B Powers of entry and search: failure to
grant access to premises
(1) This section applies where a constable
reasonably suspects that the controlled person is not granting access to
premises, as required by an obligation imposed by or under the control order, at
a time when the controlled person is required, by an obligation so imposed, to
be at those premises.
(2) The constable may enter (if necessary by
force) and search the premises—
(a) for the purpose of determining whether any
of the obligations imposed by or under the control order have been
contravened;
(b) if it appears that an obligation has been
contravened, for material that may assist in the investigation of the
contravention.
7C Powers of entry and search: monitoring
compliance with order
(1) A constable may apply for the issue of a
warrant under this section for the purposes of determining whether the
controlled person is complying with the obligations imposed by or under a
control order.
(2) The application must be made—
(a) in England and Wales, to a justice of the
peace;
(b) in Scotland, to the sheriff;
(c) in Northern Ireland, to a lay
magistrate.
(3) A warrant under this section shall
authorise any constable to enter (if necessary by force) and search premises to
which this section applies that are specified in the warrant.
(4) The premises to which this section applies
are—
(a) the controlled person’s place of
residence;
(b) other premises to which the controlled
person is required to grant access in accordance with an obligation imposed by
or under the control order;
(c) any premises—
(i) to which the controlled person has
previously been required to grant access in accordance with an obligation
imposed by or under a control order, and
(ii) with which there is reason to believe that
the controlled person is or was recently connected.
(5) An application under this section may only
be granted if the justice of the peace, the sheriff or the lay magistrate is
satisfied that the issue of the warrant is necessary for the purposes of
determining whether the controlled person is complying with the obligations
imposed by or under the control order.”.
(2) In
section 9 of that Act (offences)—
(a) after subsection (3) insert—
“(3A) A person who intentionally obstructs the
exercise by a constable of a power conferred by section 7A or 7B or by a warrant
under section 7C commits an offence.”;
(b) in
subsection (7) after “subsection (3)” insert “or (3A)”.
(3) These amendments have effect as from the
commencement of this section and apply regardless of when the control order was
made.
79 Control
orders: meaning of involvement in terrorism-related activity
(1) In
section 1(9) of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 (c. 2)
(meaning of involvement in terrorism-related activity), in paragraph (d), for
“to be involved in terrorism-related activity” substitute “by the individual
concerned to be involved in conduct falling within paragraphs (a) to
(c)”.
(2) This amendment shall be deemed always to have had
effect.
80 Time allowed
for representations by controlled person
(1) Section 3 of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005
(supervision by court of making of non-derogating control orders) is amended as
follows.
(2) In
subsection (7) (opportunity for individual to make representations about
directions given by the court), omit “within 7 days of the court’s giving
permission or (as the case may be) making its determination on the
reference”.
(3) After that subsection insert—
“(7A) The individual must be given the
opportunity to make those representations—
(a) in the case of directions under subsection
(2)(c), within 7 days of notice of the terms of the control order being
delivered to the individual in accordance with section 7(8);
(b) in the case of directions given under
subsection (6)(b) or (c), within 7 days of the court making its determination on
the reference.”.
(4) These amendments apply in relation to control
orders made after this section comes into force.
81 Application
for anonymity for controlled person
(1) In
the Schedule to the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 (c. 2)
(control order proceedings etc), paragraph 5 (application for anonymity for
controlled person) is amended as follows.
(2) In
sub-paragraph (1)(a) omit “, at any time after a control order has been
made,”.
(3) After sub-paragraph (3) insert—
“(4)
In relation to a time before the
control order has been made references in this paragraph to “the controlled
person” shall be read as references to the person in respect of whom the
Secretary of State has made an application to the court for (as the case may
be)—
(a) permission to make a non-derogating
control order under section 3(1)(a), or
(b) the making of a derogating control order
under section 4(1).”.
(4) These amendments shall be deemed always to have
had effect.
Pre-charge
detention of terrorist suspects
82 Pre-charge detention: minor amendments
(1) In
paragraph 9 of Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (direction that detained
person may consult solicitor only within sight and hearing of qualified
officer), for sub-paragraph (3) (grounds on which direction may be given)
substitute—
“(3)
A direction under this paragraph may
be given only if the officer giving it has reasonable grounds for
believing—
(a) that, unless the direction is given, the
exercise of the right by the detained person will have any of the consequences
specified in paragraph 8(4), or
(b) that the detained person has benefited
from his criminal conduct and that, unless the direction is given, the exercise
of the right by the detained person will hinder the recovery of the value of the
property constituting the benefit.”.
(2) In
paragraph 29(4) of that Schedule (meaning of “judicial authority”), in
paragraphs (a) and (c) omit “after consulting the Lord Chancellor”.
Forfeiture
of terrorist cash
83 Forfeiture of terrorist cash: determination
of period for which cash may be detained
(1) Schedule 1 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and
Security Act 2001
(c. 24) (forfeiture of terrorist cash) is amended as follows.
(2) In
paragraph 3 (detention of seized cash), after sub-paragraph (1) (which specifies
the period for which cash seized may initially be detained) insert—
“(1A) In determining the period of 48 hours
specified in sub-paragraph (1) there shall be disregarded—
(a) any Saturday or Sunday;
(b) Christmas Day;
(c) Good Friday;
(d) any day that is a bank holiday under the
Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in the part of the United Kingdom in
which the cash is seized;
(e) any day prescribed under section 8(2) of
the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 as a court holiday in the sheriff
court district in which the cash is seized.”.
(3) In
paragraphs 4(1) and 10(2) (which refer to the period specified in paragraph
3(1)), after “48 hours” insert “(determined in accordance with paragraph
3(1A))”.
(4) The
amendments in this section apply in relation to cash seized after this section
comes into force.
84 Forfeiture
of terrorist cash: appeal against decision in forfeiture proceedings
(1) In
Schedule 1 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (forfeiture of
terrorist cash), for paragraph 7 (appeal against forfeiture) substitute—
“Appeal against decision in forfeiture
proceedings
7 (1) A party to proceedings for an order under
paragraph 6 (“a forfeiture order”) who is aggrieved by a forfeiture order made
in the proceedings or by the decision of the court or sheriff not to make a
forfeiture order may appeal—
(a) in England and Wales, to the Crown
Court;
(b) in Scotland, to the sheriff
principal;
(c) in Northern Ireland, to a county
court.
(2) The appeal must be brought before the end
of the period of 30 days beginning with the date on which the order is made or,
as the case may be, the decision is given.
This is subject to paragraph 7A (extended
time for appealing in certain cases of deproscription).
(3) The court or sheriff principal hearing the
appeal may make any order that appears to the court or sheriff principal to be
appropriate.
(4) If an appeal against a forfeiture order is
upheld, the court or sheriff principal may order the release of the cash.
Extended time for
appealing in certain cases where deproscription order made
7A (1) This paragraph applies where—
(a) a successful application for a forfeiture
order relies (wholly or partly) on the fact that an organisation is
proscribed,
(b) an application under section 4 of the
Terrorism Act 2000 for a deproscription order in respect of the organisation is
refused by the Secretary of State,
(c) the forfeited cash is seized under this
Schedule on or after the date of the refusal of that application,
(d) an appeal against that refusal is allowed
under section 5 of that Act,
(e) a deproscription order is made
accordingly, and
(f) if the order is made in reliance on
section 123(5) of that Act, a resolution is passed by each House of Parliament
under section 123(5)(b).
(2) Where this paragraph applies, an appeal
under paragraph 7 above against the forfeiture order may be brought at any time
before the end of the period of 30 days beginning with the date on which the
deproscription order comes into force.
(3) In this paragraph a “deproscription order”
means an order under section 3(3)(b) or (8) of the Terrorism Act 2000.”.
(2) This amendment applies where the order or
decision of the court or sheriff against which the appeal is brought is made or
given after this section comes into force.
Costs of
policing at gas facilities
85 Costs
of policing at gas facilities: England and Wales
(1) This section applies where the Secretary of State
considers—
(a) that the provision of extra police services at a
gas facility in England or Wales is necessary because of a risk of loss of or
disruption to the supply of gas connected with it, and
(b) that the loss or disruption would have a serious
impact on the United Kingdom or any part of it.
(2) In
this section “extra police services” means—
(a) the
services of the Ministry of Defence Police provided under an agreement with the
Secretary of State for Defence under section 2(2)(e) of the Ministry of Defence
Police Act 1987 (c. 4), or
(b) special police services provided under section
25(1) of the Police Act 1996 (c. 16) at the Secretary of State’s request.
(3) The
Secretary of State may require a designated gas transporter who has an interest
in the gas facility to pay all or part of the costs incurred by the Secretary of
State in respect of the provision of extra police services in or around the
facility.
(4) In
this section “gas facility” means a facility used for the purposes of, or for
purposes connected with, the transportation of gas from a gas shipper to a gas
transporter or gas supplier.
(5) The
reference in subsection (3) to a designated gas transporter having an interest
in a gas facility includes the facility being used for, or for purposes
connected with, the supply of gas to the transporter.
86 Costs of
policing at gas facilities: Scotland
(1) This section applies where the Secretary of State
considers—
(a) that the provision of extra police services at a
gas facility in Scotland is necessary because of a risk of loss of or disruption
to the supply of gas connected with it, and
(b) that the loss or disruption would have a serious
impact on the United Kingdom or any part of it.
(2) In
this section “extra police services” means—
(a) the
services of the Ministry of Defence Police provided under an agreement with the
Secretary of State for Defence under section 2(2)(e) of the Ministry of Defence
Police Act 1987 (c. 4), or
(b) police services provided under an agreement under
section 13 of the Police (Scotland) Act 1967 (c. 77) for the guarding,
patrolling and watching of the gas facility entered into at the request of the
Secretary of State by—
(i) the
occupier of, or of part of, the facility, and
(ii) the police authority, chief constable of the
police force or joint police board for the police area in which it is
situated.
(3) The
Secretary of State may require a designated gas transporter who has an interest
in the gas facility to pay all or part of the costs incurred by the Secretary of
State in respect of the provision of extra police services within subsection
(2)(a) in or around the facility.
(4) The
Secretary of State, if so requested by the occupier, must require a designated
gas transporter who has an interest in the gas facility to pay the reasonable
costs incurred by the occupier under any such agreement as is mentioned in
subsection (2)(b).
(5) In
this section “gas facility” means a facility used for the purposes of, or for
purposes connected with, the transportation of gas from a gas shipper to a gas
transporter or gas supplier.
(6) References in this section to a designated gas
transporter having an interest in a gas facility include the facility being used
for, or for purposes connected with, the supply of gas to the
transporter.
87 Designated
gas transporters
(1) The
Secretary of State may by order designate a person who is the holder of a
licence under section 7 of the Gas Act 1986 (c. 44) (licensing of gas
transporters) as a designated gas transporter for the purposes of sections 85 to
90.
(2) The
order may provide for a person to be designated only in such capacity as may be
specified in the order.
(3) An
order under this section is subject to negative resolution procedure.
88 Costs of
policing at gas facilities: recovery of costs
(1) The
Secretary of State may determine—
(a) the
amount of the costs to be paid by a designated gas transporter under section 85
or 86,
(b) the
manner in which and the times at which those costs are to be paid, and
(c) the
person or persons to whom they are to be paid.
(2) An
occupier who incurs costs under an agreement under section 13 of the Police
(Scotland) Act 1967 (c. 77) that are required to be paid by a designated gas
transporter under section 86 may recover them directly from the designated gas
transporter.
(3) A
designated gas transporter may, in determining its charges for conveying gas
through pipes, take into account—
(a) any
payments made by the designated gas transporter under section 85 or 86,
and
(b) the
reasonable costs incurred by it as party to an agreement under section 13 of the
Police (Scotland) Act 1967 entered into at the Secretary of State’s
request.
This applies despite anything in the conditions of
the designated gas transporter’s licence under section 7 of the Gas Act 1986 (c.
44) that prevents the transporter from recovering such payments or costs.
(4) The
Secretary of State may direct the Gas and Electricity Markets Authority (“the
Authority”)—
(a) to
treat the payments or costs as costs of a kind specified by the Secretary of
State for the purposes of the determination by the designated gas transporter of
the transporter’s charges, or
(b) to
allow the designated gas transporter to take into account payments made or costs
incurred in or in relation to a period so specified in determining the
transporter’s charges for a period so specified.
(5) The
Secretary of State must consult the designated gas transporter and the Authority
before giving a direction under this section.
89 Costs of
policing at gas facilities: supplementary provisions
(1) The
Secretary of State must consult a designated gas transporter and the
Authority—
(a) before the first time the Secretary of State
requires the designated gas transporter to pay any costs under section 85 or
86,
(b) before the first time the Secretary of State
requires the designated gas transporter to pay such costs in respect of a
particular gas facility, and
(c) where extra police services were previously
provided at a particular gas facility, before the first time the Secretary of
State requires the designated gas transporter to pay such costs as the result of
such services being provided on a subsequent occasion.
(2) The
Secretary of State is not required—
(a) to
take into account representations made after the end of the period of 28 days
beginning with the day on which the person making the representations was
consulted under subsection (1);
(b) to
consult anyone else before requiring a designated gas transporter to pay costs
under section 85 or 86.
(3) Sections 4AA to 4A of the Gas Act 1986 (c. 44)
(principal objective and general duties of the Secretary of State and the
Authority) do not apply in relation to anything done or omitted by the Secretary
of State or the Authority in the exercise of functions under sections 85 to
89.
(4) Expressions used in those sections that are
defined in Part 1 of the Gas Act 1986 have the same meaning as in that
Part.
90 Application
of provisions to costs incurred before commencement
Sections 85 to 89 apply in
relation to costs incurred in the period—
(a) beginning with 16th January 2007, and
(b) ending with the day before those sections come
into force,
as they apply in relation to costs incurred on or
after that day.
Appointment of special advocates in Northern Ireland
91 Appointment of special advocates in Northern
Ireland
(1) In
the following provisions for “Attorney General for Northern Ireland”, wherever
occurring, substitute “Advocate General for Northern Ireland”.
(2) The
provisions are—
-
section 6(2)(c) of the Special
Immigration Appeals Commission Act 1997 (c. 68)
(appointment of special advocate in proceedings before the Special Immigration
Appeals Commission);
-
rule 9(1) of the Northern Ireland Act
Tribunal (Procedure) Rules 1999 (S.I. 1999/2131) (appointment of special
advocate in proceedings before the tribunal appointed under section 91 of the
Northern Ireland Act 1998 (c. 47));
-
paragraph 7(2)(c) of Schedule 3 to the
Terrorism Act 2000
(c. 11) (appointment of special advocate in proceedings before the
Proscribed Organisations Appeal Commission);
-
paragraph 6(2)(c) of Schedule 6 to the
Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24)
(appointment of special advocate in proceedings before the Pathogens Access
Appeal Commission).
(3) These amendments come into force when section 27
of the Justice (Northern Ireland) Act 2002 (c. 26) comes
into force.
Part 8
Supplementary provisions
General definitions
92 Meaning
of “terrorism”
In this Act “terrorism” has
the same meaning as in the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (see
section 1 of that Act).
93 Meaning of
offence having a “terrorist connection”
For the purposes of this Act
an offence has a terrorist connection if the offence—
(a) is,
or takes place in the course of, an act of terrorism, or
(b) is
committed for the purposes of terrorism.
94 Meaning of
“ancillary offence”
(1) In
this Act “ancillary offence”, in relation to an offence, means any of the
following—
(a) aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the
commission of the offence (or, in Scotland, being art and part in the commission
of the offence);
(b) an
offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 (c. 27)
(encouraging or assisting crime) in relation to the offence (or, in Scotland,
inciting a person to commit the offence);
(c) attempting or conspiring to commit the
offence.
(2) In
subsection (1)(b) the reference to an offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime
Act 2007 includes, in relation to times before the commencement of that Part, an
offence of incitement under the law of England and Wales or Northern
Ireland.
95 Meaning of
“service court” and “service offence”
(1) In
this Act “service court” means the Court Martial, the Service Civilian Court or
the Court Martial Appeal Court.
(2) Until the commencement of the relevant provisions
of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (c. 52), the following is substituted for subsection
(1)—
“(1)
In this Act “service court”
means—
(a) a court-martial constituted under the Army
Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 18), the Air Force
Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 19) or the Naval Discipline Act 1957 (c.
53);
(b) the Courts-Martial Appeal Court; or
(c) a Standing Civilian Court.”.
(3) In
this Act “service offence” means an offence under—
(a) section 42 of the Armed Forces Act 2006,
(b) section 70 of the Army Act 1955 or the Air Force
Act 1955, or
(c) section 42 of the Naval Discipline Act
1957.
(4) References in this Act to the “corresponding
civil offence” in relation to a service offence are—
(a) in
relation to an offence under section 42 of the Armed Forces Act 2006, to the
corresponding offence under the law of England and Wales within the meaning of
that section;
(b) in
relation to an offence under section 70 of the Army Act 1955 or the Air Force
Act 1955, to the corresponding civil offence within the meaning of that
Act;
(c) in
relation to an offence under section 42 of the Naval Discipline Act 1957, to the
civil offence within the meaning of that section.
(5) Section 48 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (c. 52)
(supplementary provisions relating to ancillary service offences) applies for
the purposes of subsection (4)(a) above as it applies for the purposes of the
provisions of that Act referred to in subsection (3)(b) of that section.
Orders and
regulations
96 Orders
and regulations
(1) Orders and regulations under this Act must be
made by statutory instrument.
(2) Orders or regulations under this Act may—
(a) make different provision for different cases or
circumstances,
(b) include supplementary, incidental and
consequential provision, and
(c) make transitional provision and savings.
(3) Any
provision that may be made by regulations under this Act may be made by order;
and any provision that may be made by order under this Act may be made by
regulations.
97 Orders and
regulations: affirmative and negative resolution procedure
(1) Where orders or regulations under this Act are
subject to “affirmative resolution procedure” the order or regulations must not
be made unless a draft of the statutory instrument containing them has been laid
before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House of
Parliament.
(2) Where orders or regulations under this Act are
subject to “negative resolution procedure” the statutory instrument containing
the order or regulations shall be subject to annulment in pursuance of a
resolution of either House of Parliament.
(3) Provision that may be made by order or
regulations under this Act for which no Parliamentary procedure is prescribed
may be included in an instrument subject to negative or affirmative resolution
procedure.
(4) Provision that may be made by order or
regulations under this Act subject to negative resolution procedure may be
included in an instrument subject to affirmative resolution procedure.
Financial
provisions
98 Financial provisions
(1) There shall be paid out of money provided by
Parliament—
(a) any
expenses of the Secretary of State under this Act, and
(b) any
increase attributable to this Act in the sums payable out of money so provided
under any other Act.
(2) There shall be paid into the Consolidated
Fund—
(a) any
sums received by the Secretary of State under this Act, and
(b) any
increase attributable to this Act in the sums payable into that Fund under any
other Act.
Repeals
and revocations
99 Repeals
and revocations
The enactments specified in
Schedule 9, which include enactments that are spent, are repealed or revoked to
the extent specified.
Final
provisions
100 Commencement
(1) The
provisions of this Part, except section 99 and Schedule 9 (repeals and
revocations), come into force on the day this Act is passed.
(2) Part 5 (terrorist financing and money laundering)
and Part 6 (financial restrictions proceedings) come into force on the day after
the day on which this Act is passed.
(3) Sections 85 to 90 (costs of policing at gas
facilities) come into force at the end of the period of two months beginning
with the day on which this Act is passed.
(4) Section 91 (appointment of special advocates in
Northern Ireland) comes into force in accordance with subsection (3) of that
section.
(5) The
other provisions of this Act come into force on such day as may be appointed by
order of the Secretary of State.
(6) The
Secretary of State may by order make such transitional provision and savings as
appears necessary or expedient in connection with the commencement of any
provision of this Act.
101 Extent
(1) Except as otherwise provided—
(a) an
amendment or repeal by this Act has the same extent as the enactment amended or
repealed; and
(b) any
other provisions of this Act—
(i)
extend to the whole of the United Kingdom,
and
(ii) do
not extend to any country or territory outside the United Kingdom.
(2) Nothing in this section shall be read as
restricting the application of any provision of this Act in relation to service
courts or service offences.
102 Short
title
The short title of this Act
is the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008
SCHEDULES
Section 20
SCHEDULE 1 Disclosure and the intelligence
services: consequential amendments
Anti-terrorism, Crime
and Security Act 2001 (c. 24)
1 In section 19(2) of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and
Security Act 2001 (disclosure of information held by revenue departments), omit
paragraph (a).
Representation of the
People (England and Wales) Regulations 2001 (S.I. 2001/341)
2 (1) The
Representation of the People (England and Wales) Regulations 2001 are amended as
follows.
(2) In
regulation 45E (supply of record of anonymous entries to the security services),
omit paragraphs (3) and (4).
(3) In
regulation 102(6) (supply of full register: general restrictions on use), for
“regulations 103 to 109” substitute “regulations 103 to 108 or 109”.
(4) After regulation 108 insert—
“108A Supply of full register etc to the security services
(1) This regulation applies to—
(a) the Security Service;
(b) the Government Communications
Headquarters;
(c) the Secret Intelligence Service.
(2) For the purposes of regulation 102(1)
above the relevant part of the documents listed in that provision is the whole
of them.”.
(5) In
regulation 109 (supply of full register etc to police force and other agencies
and restrictions on use), omit—
(a) paragraph (1)(g) to (i);
(b) in
paragraph (4)(a), the words preceding paragraph (i);
(c) paragraph (4)(b) and the word “and” immediately
preceding it.
(6) In
regulation 113 (sale of full register to government departments and other
bodies)—
(a) in
the closing words of paragraph (1), after “other than” insert “a department to
which regulation 108A applies or”;
(b) in
paragraph (3) for “regulation 109(1)(g) to (i),” substitute “regulation
108A”.
(7) In
regulation 115(2) (offences) omit “45E(3),”.
(8) For
regulation 118(8) (provision of copies of documents open to public inspection)
substitute insert—
“(8)
The relevant registration officer
shall, on request, supply free of charge copies of any documents open to public
inspection—
(a) to each of the departments mentioned in
regulation 108A;
(b) to a person who has inspected those
documents and who is entitled to be supplied with a copy of the marked register
or lists by virtue of being a person to whom regulation 109 applies.”.
(9) In
regulation 119(3) for “regulation 118(8)” substitute “regulation
118(8)(b)”.
Representation of the
People (Scotland) Regulations 2001 (S.I. 2001/497)
3 (1) The
Representation of the People (Scotland) Regulations 2001 are amended as
follows.
(2) In
regulation 45D (supply of record of anonymous entries to the security services),
omit paragraphs (3) and (4).
(3) In
regulation 101(6) (supply of full register: general restrictions on use), for
“regulations 102 to 108” substitute “regulations 102 to 107 or 108”.
(4) After regulation 107 insert—
“107A Supply of full register etc to the
security services
(1) This regulation applies to—
(a) the Security Service;
(b) the Government Communications
Headquarters;
(c) the Secret Intelligence Service.
(2) For the purposes of regulation 101(1)
above the relevant part of the documents listed in that provision is the whole
of them.”.
(5) In
regulation 108 (supply of full register etc to police force and other agencies
and restrictions on use), omit—
(a) paragraph (1)(g) to (i);
(b) in
paragraph (4)(a), the words preceding paragraph (i);
(c) paragraph (4)(b) and the word “and” immediately
preceding it.
(6) In
regulation 112 (sale of full register to government departments and other
bodies)—
(a) in
the closing words of paragraph (1), after “other than” insert “a department to
which regulation 107A applies or”;
(b) in
paragraph (3) for “regulation 108(1)(g) to (i),” substitute “regulation
107A”.
(7) In
regulation 115(2) (offences) omit “45D(3),”.
(8) For
regulation 118(8) (provision of copies of documents open to public inspection)
substitute—
“(8)
The relevant registration officer
shall, on request, supply free of charge copies of any documents open to public
inspection—
(a) to each of the departments mentioned in
regulation 107A;
(b) to a person who has inspected those
documents and who is entitled to be supplied with a copy of the marked register
or lists by virtue of being a person to whom regulation 108 applies.”.
(9) In
regulation 119(3) for “regulation 118(8)” substitute “regulation
118(8)(b)”.
Immigration, Asylum and
Nationality Act 2006 (c. 13)
4 In the Immigration, Asylum and Nationality Act
2006, omit section 38 (disclosure of information for security purposes).
Statistics and
Registration Service Act 2007 (c. 18)
5 In the Statistics and Registration Service Act
2007, omit—
(a) section 39(4)(g) (permitted disclosure of
personal information: disclosure to an Intelligence Service); and
(b) in
section 67 (general interpretation), the definition of “Intelligence
Service”.
SCHEDULE 2 Offences where terrorist
connection to be considered
Common law offences
-
Murder.
-
Manslaughter.
-
Culpable homicide.
-
Kidnapping.
-
Abduction.
Statutory offences
An offence under any of the following sections of the Offences
against the Person Act 1861 (c. 100)—
(a)
section 4 (soliciting
murder),
(b)
section 23 (maliciously administering
poison etc so as to
endanger life or inflict grievous bodily harm),
(c)
section 28 (causing bodily injury by
explosives),
(d)
section 29 (using explosives etc with
intent to do grievous bodily harm),
(e)
section 30 (placing explosives with
intent to do bodily injury),
(f)
section 64 (making or having gunpowder
etc with intent to commit or enable any person to commit any felony mentioned in
the Act).
An offence under any of the following sections of the Explosive
Substances Act 1883 (c. 3)—
(a)
section 2 (causing explosion likely to
endanger life or property),
(b)
section 3 (attempt to cause explosion
or making or keeping explosive with intent to endanger life or
property),
(c)
section 4 (making or possession of
explosive under suspicious circumstances),
(d)
section 5 (punishment of
accessories).
An offence under section 1 of the Biological Weapons Act 1974
(c. 6) (restriction on development etc of certain biological agents and toxins
and of biological weapons).
An offence under section 1 of the Taking of Hostages Act 1982
(c. 28) (hostage-taking).
An offence under any of the following sections of the Aviation
Security Act 1982 (c. 36)—
(a)
section 1 (hijacking),
(b)
section 2 (destroying, damaging or
endangering safety of aircraft),
(c)
section 3 (other acts endangering or
likely to endanger safety of aircraft),
(d)
section 4 (offences in relation to
certain dangerous articles),
(e)
section 6(2) (inducing or assisting
commission of offence under section 1, 2 or 3 outside the United
Kingdom).
An offence under any of the following sections of the Nuclear
Material (Offences) Act 1983 (c. 18)—
(a)
section 1B (offences relating to damage
to the environment),
(b)
section 1C (offences of importing or
exporting etc nuclear materials: extended jurisdiction),
(c)
section 2 (offences involving
preparatory acts and threats), so far as relating to an offence specified in
this Schedule.
An offence under any of the following sections of the Aviation
and Maritime Security Act 1990 (c. 31)—
(a)
section 1 (endangering safety at
aerodromes),
(b)
section 9 (hijacking of
ships),
(c)
section 10 (seizing or exercising
control of fixed platforms),
(d)
section 11 (destroying ships or fixed
platforms or endangering their safety),
(e)
section 14(4) (inducing or assisting
the commission of an offence outside the United Kingdom), so far as relating to
an offence under section 9 or 11 of that Act.
An offence under Part 2 of the Channel Tunnel (Security) Order
1994 (S.I. 1994/570) (offences
against the safety of channel tunnel trains and the tunnel system).
An offence under any of the following sections of the Chemical
Weapons Act 1996
(c. 6)—
(a)
section 2 (use etc of chemical
weapons),
(b)
section 11 (premises or equipment for
producing chemical weapons).
An offence under any of the following sections of the
Anti-Terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24)—
(a)
section 47 (use etc of nuclear
weapons),
(b)
section 114 (hoaxes involving noxious
substances or things).
Ancillary offences
Any ancillary offence in relation to an offence specified in
this Schedule.
Section 39
SCHEDULE 3 Forfeiture: consequential
amendments
Proceeds of Crime
(Northern Ireland) Order 1996 (S.I. 1996/1299 (N.I. 9))
1 In Article 5(3) of the Proceeds of Crime
(Northern Ireland) Order 1996, after “section 23” insert “or 23A”.
2 In section 54 of the Terrorism Act 2000, omit
subsections (7) to (9).
3 In section 58 of that Act, omit subsections (5)
to (7).
4 In section 119(1) of that Act for “sections 15 to
23” substitute “sections 15 to 23A”.
5 (1) Schedule
4 to that Act is amended as follows.
(2) In
paragraph 1—
(a) in
the definition of “forfeiture order” after “section 23” insert “or 23A”;
(b) after the definition of “forfeited property”
insert—
““relevant
offence” means—
(a) an offence under any of sections 15 to
18,
(b) an offence to which section 23A applies,
or
(c) in relation to a restraint order, any
offence specified in Schedule 2 to the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (offences
where terrorist connection to be considered).”.
(3) In
paragraph 2(1)(d) for “section 23(7)” substitute “section 23B(1)”.
(4) In
paragraph 4(2)(c) for “section 23(7)” substitute “section 23B(1)”.
(5) In
paragraph 5(1)(a) and (2)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18”
substitute “a relevant offence”.
(6) In
paragraph 6(4)(a) and (b) for “offences under any of sections 15 to 18”
substitute “relevant offences”.
(7) Omit the heading before paragraph 9.
(8) In
paragraph 9(2)—
(a) in
the opening words, for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “a
relevant offence”;
(b) in
paragraphs (a), (b) and (c), for “an offence under any of those sections”
substitute “a relevant offence”.
(9) In
paragraph 10(1)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “a
relevant offence”.
(10) In
paragraph 12 after “section 23”, in each place where it occurs, insert “or
23A”.
(11) In
paragraph 15—
(a) in
the definition of “forfeiture order” after “section 23” insert “or 23A”;
(b) after the definition of “forfeited property”
insert—
““relevant
offence” means—
(a) an offence under any of sections 15 to
18,
(b) an offence to which section 23A applies,
or
(c) in relation to a restraint order, any
offence specified in Schedule 2 to the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (offences
where terrorist connection to be considered).”.
(12) In
paragraph 16(1)(c) and (4)(c) for “section 23(7)” substitute “section
23B(1)”.
(13) In
paragraph 18(1)(a) and (2)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18”
substitute “a relevant offence”.
(14) In
paragraph 19(3A)(a) and (b) for “offences under any of sections 15 to 18”
substitute “relevant offences”.
(15) Omit the heading before paragraph 23.
(16) In
paragraph 23(2)—
(a) in
the opening words for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “a
relevant offence”;
(b) in
paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) for “an offence under any of those sections”
substitute “a relevant offence”.
(17) In
paragraph 24(1)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “a
relevant offence”.
(18) In
paragraph 26 after “section 23”, in each place where it occurs, insert “or
23A”.
(19) In
paragraph 29—
(a) in
the definition of “forfeiture order” after “section 23” insert “or 23A”;
(b) after the definition of “forfeited property”
insert—
““relevant
offence” means—
(a) an offence under any of sections 15 to 18,
or
(b) an offence to which section 23A
applies.”.
(20) In
paragraph 30(1)(d) for “section 23(7)” substitute “section 23B(1)”.
(21) In
paragraph 32(2)(c) for “section 23(7)” substitute “section 23B(1)”.
(22) In
paragraph 33(1)(a) and (2)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18”
substitute “a relevant offence”.
(23) In
paragraph 34(4)(a) and (b) for “offences under any of sections 15 to 18”
substitute “relevant offences”.
(24) In
paragraph 38(4), in the definition of “prosecutor” for “an offence under any of
sections 15 to 18” substitute “a relevant offence”.
(25) Omit the heading before paragraph 39.
(26) In
paragraph 39(2)—
(a) in
the opening words for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “a
relevant offence”;
(b) in
paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) for “an offence under any of those sections”
substitute “a relevant offence”.
(27) In
paragraph 40(1)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “a
relevant offence”.
(28) In
paragraph 42 after “section 23”, in each place where it occurs, insert “or
23A”.
(29) In
paragraph 45, in paragraph (a) of the definition of “forfeiture order” after
“section 23” insert “or 23A”.
6 In Schedule 8 to that Act, in paragraphs 8(4)(d),
17(3)(c) and 34(2)(c) after “section 23” insert “or 23A”.
7 (1) The
Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 is amended as follows.
(2) In
section 13(3)(d) after “section 23” insert “or 23A”.
(3) In
section 82(e) after “section 23” insert “, 23A”.
(4) In
section 97(3)(d) after “section 23” insert “or 23A”.
(5) In
section 148(e) after “section 23” insert “, 23A”.
(6) In
section 163(3)(d) after “section 23” insert “or 23A”.
(7) In
section 230(e) after “section 23” insert “, 23A”.
SCHEDULE 4 Notification orders
Introductory
1 A “notification order” is an order applying the
notification requirements of this Part to a person who has been dealt with
outside the United Kingdom in respect of a corresponding foreign offence.
Corresponding foreign
offences
2 (1) A
“corresponding foreign offence” means an act that—
(a) constituted an offence under the law in force in
a country outside the United Kingdom, and
(b) corresponds to an offence to which this Part
applies.
(2) For
this purpose an act punishable under the law in force in a country outside the
United Kingdom is regarded as constituting an offence under that law however it
is described in that law.
(3) An
act corresponds to an offence to which this Part applies if—
(a) it
would have constituted an offence to which this Part applies by virtue of
section 41 if it had been done in any part of the United Kingdom, or
(b) it
was, or took place in the course of, an act of terrorism or was done for the
purposes of terrorism.
(4) On
an application for a notification order the condition in sub-paragraph (3)(a) or
(b) is to be taken to be met unless—
(a) the
defendant serves on the applicant, not later than rules of court may provide, a
notice—
(i) stating that, on the facts as alleged with
respect to the act concerned, the condition is not in the defendant’s opinion
met,
(ii) showing the defendant’s grounds for that opinion,
and
(iii) requiring the applicant to prove that the
condition is met; or
(b) the
court permits the defendant to require the applicant to prove that the condition
is met without service of such a notice.
(5) In
the application of this paragraph in Scotland, for “defendant” substitute
“respondent”.
Conditions for making a
notification order
3 (1) The
conditions for making a notification order in respect of a person are as
follows.
(2) The
first condition is that under the law in force in a country outside the United
Kingdom—
(a) the
person has been convicted of a corresponding foreign offence and has received in
respect of the offence a sentence equivalent to a sentence mentioned in section
45(1)(a), (2)(a) or (3)(a), or
(b) a
court exercising jurisdiction under that law has, in respect of a corresponding
foreign offence—
(i) convicted the person or made a finding in
relation to the person equivalent to a finding mentioned in section 45(1)(b)(ii)
or (iii), (2)(b)(ii) or (iii) or (3)(b)(ii) or (iii) (finding of insanity or
disability), and
(ii) made the person subject to an order equivalent to
a hospital order.
(3) This condition is not met if there was a flagrant
denial of the person’s right to a fair trial.
(4) The
second condition is that—
(a) the
sentence was imposed or order made after the commencement of this Part,
or
(b) the
sentence was imposed or order made before the commencement of this Part and
immediately before that time the person—
(i) was
imprisoned or detained in pursuance of the sentence or order,
(ii) would have been so imprisoned or detained but for
being unlawfully at large or otherwise unlawfully absent, lawfully absent on a
temporary basis or on bail pending an appeal, or
(iii) had been released on licence, or was subject to
an equivalent form of supervision, having served the whole or part of a sentence
of imprisonment for the offence.
(5) The
third condition is that the period for which the notification requirements would
apply in respect of the offence (in accordance with section 53 as modified by
paragraph 8(e)) has not expired.
(6) If
on an application for a notification order it is proved that the conditions in
sub-paragraphs (2), (4) and (5) are met, the court must make the order.
Application for
notification order
4 (1) In
England and Wales an application for a notification order in respect of a person
may only be made by a chief officer of police.
(2) An
application may only be made if—
(a) the
person resides in the chief officer’s police area, or
(b) the
chief officer believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to, that
area.
(3) The
application must be made to the High Court.
5 (1) In
Scotland an application for a notification order in respect of a person may only
be made by a chief constable.
(2) An
application may only be made if—
(a) the
person resides in the area of the chief constable’s police force, or
(b) the
chief constable believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to, that
area.
(3) The
application must be made to the Court of Session.
6 (1) In
Northern Ireland an application for a notification order in respect of a person
may only be made by the Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern
Ireland.
(2) An
application may only be made if—
(a) the
person resides in Northern Ireland, or
(b) the
Chief Constable believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to,
Northern Ireland.
(3) The
application must be made to the High Court.
Effect of notification
order
7 The effect of a notification order is that the
notification requirements of this Part apply to the person in respect of whom it
is made.
Adaptation of provisions
of this Part in relation to foreign proceedings
8 The provisions of this Part have effect with the
following adaptations in relation to foreign proceedings and cases where the
notification requirements apply because a notification order has been
made—
(a) in
section 61(1) (references to dealing with an offence) for “being sentenced, or
made subject to a hospital order” substitute “being made subject by the foreign
court to a sentence or order within paragraph 3(2)(a) or (b) of Schedule
4”;
(b) in
section 61(2) (references to time when person dealt with for an offence) for
paragraphs (a) to (c) substitute “by the foreign court of first
instance”;
(c) for
the purposes of section 47 (initial notification) the period within which
notification is to be made begins with the date of service of the notification
order;
(d) in
section 51 (meaning of “local police area”) the reference in subsection (1)(c)
to the court of trial shall be read as a reference to the court by which the
notification order was made;
(e) in
section 53 (period for which notification requirements apply) a reference to a
sentence or order of any description is to be read as a reference to an
equivalent sentence or order of the foreign court.
SCHEDULE 5 Foreign travel restriction
orders
Introductory
1 A foreign travel restriction order is an order
prohibiting the person to whom it applies from doing whichever of the following
is specified in the order—
(a) travelling to a country outside the United
Kingdom named or described in the order;
(b) travelling to any country outside the United
Kingdom other than a country named or described in the order;
(c) travelling to any country outside the United
Kingdom.
Conditions for making a
foreign travel restriction order
2 (1) The
conditions for making a foreign travel restriction order in respect of a person
are as follows.
(2) The
first condition is that the notification requirements apply to the
person.
(3) The
second condition is that the person’s behaviour since the person was dealt with
for the offence by virtue of which those requirements apply makes it necessary
for a foreign travel restriction order to be made to prevent the person from
taking part in terrorism activity outside the United Kingdom.
(4) If
the person was dealt with for the offence before the commencement of this Part,
the condition in sub-paragraph (3) is not met unless the person has acted in
that way since the commencement of this Part.
(5) If
on an application for a foreign travel restriction order the court is satisfied
that the conditions in sub-paragraphs (2) and (3) are met, it may make a foreign
travel restriction order.
Application for foreign
travel restriction order
3 (1) In
England and Wales an application for a foreign travel restriction order in
respect of a person may only be made by a chief officer of police.
(2) An
application may only be made if—
(a) the
person resides in the chief officer’s police area, or
(b) the
chief officer believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to, that
area.
(3) The
application must be made by complaint to a magistrates' court whose commission
area includes any part of the chief officer’s police area.
4 (1) In
Scotland an application for a foreign travel restriction order in respect of a
person may only be made by a chief constable.
(2) An
application may only be made if—
(a) the
person resides in the area of the chief constable’s police force, or
(b) the
chief constable believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to, that
area.
(3) The
application must be made by summary application to a sheriff within whose
sheriffdom any part of the area of the chief constable’s police force
lies.
(4) A
record of evidence is to be kept on any such summary application.
(5) Where the sheriff makes a foreign travel
restriction order, the clerk of the court must give a copy of the order to the
respondent or send a copy to the respondent by registered post or the recorded
delivery service.
(6) An
acknowledgement or certificate of delivery issued by the Post Office is
sufficient evidence of the delivery of the copy on the day specified in the
acknowledgement or certificate.
5 (1) In
Northern Ireland an application for a foreign travel restriction order in
respect of a person may only be made by the Chief Constable of the Police
Service of Northern Ireland.
(2) An
application may only be made if—
(a) the
person resides in Northern Ireland, or
(b) the
Chief Constable believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to,
Northern Ireland.
(3) The
application must be made by complaint under Part 8 of the Magistrates' Courts
(Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I. 26)) to a court of
summary jurisdiction.
Provisions of a foreign
travel restriction order
6 (1) A foreign
travel restriction order may prohibit the person to whom it applies—
(a) from travelling to any country outside the United
Kingdom named or described in the order; or
(b) from travelling to any country outside the United
Kingdom other than a country named or described in the order; or
(c) from travelling to any country outside the United
Kingdom.
(2) The
order must only impose such prohibitions as are necessary for the purpose of
preventing the person from taking part in terrorism activity outside the United
Kingdom.
(3) A
foreign travel restriction order containing a prohibition within sub-paragraph
(1)(c) must require the person to whom it applies to surrender all that person’s
passports, at a police station specified in the order—
(a) on
or before the date when the prohibition takes effect, or
(b) within a period specified in the order.
(4) Any
passports surrendered must be returned as soon as reasonably practicable after
the person ceases to be subject to a foreign travel restriction order containing
such a prohibition.
Duration of foreign
travel restriction order
7 (1) A foreign
travel restriction order has effect for a fixed period of not more than 6
months.
(2) The
period must be specified in the order.
(3) A
foreign travel restriction order ceases to have effect if a court (whether the
same or another court) makes another foreign travel restriction order in
relation to the person to whom the earlier order applies.
Variation, renewal or
discharge of order
8 (1) In
England and Wales an application for an order varying, renewing or discharging a
foreign travel restriction order may be made by—
(a) the
person subject to the order;
(b) the
chief officer of police on whose application the order was made;
(c) the
chief officer of police for the area in which the person subject to the order
resides; or
(d) a
chief officer of police who believes that the person subject to the order is in,
or is intending to come to, the officer’s police area.
(2) The
application must be made by complaint to—
(a) a
magistrates' court for the same area as the court that made the order,
(b) a
magistrates' court for the area in which the person subject to the order
resides, or
(c) where the application is made by a chief officer
of police, any magistrates' court whose commission area includes any part of
that chief officer’s police area.
(3) On
an application under this paragraph the court may make such order varying,
renewing or discharging the foreign travel restriction order as it considers
appropriate.
(4) Before doing so it must hear the person making
the application and (if they wish to be heard) the other persons mentioned in
sub-paragraph (1).
9 (1) In
Scotland an application for an order varying, renewing or discharging a foreign
travel restriction order may be made by—
(a) the
person subject to the order;
(b) the
chief constable on whose application the order was made;
(c) the
chief constable in the area of whose police force the person subject to the
order resides; or
(d) a
chief constable who believes that the person subject to the order is in, or is
intending to come to, the area of that chief constable’s police force.
(2) The
application must be made by summary application—
(a) to
the sheriff who made the order, or
(b) to
a sheriff—
(i) within whose sheriffdom the person subject to the
order resides, or
(ii) where the application is made by a chief
constable, within whose sheriffdom any part of the area of the chief constable’s
police force lies.
(3) A
record of evidence is to be kept on any summary application under this
paragraph.
(4) On
an application under this paragraph the sheriff may make such order varying,
renewing or discharging the foreign travel restriction order as the sheriff
considers appropriate.
(5) Before doing so the sheriff must hear the person
making the application and (if they wish to be heard) the other persons
mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).
10 (1) In
Northern Ireland an application for an order varying, renewing or discharging a
foreign travel restriction order may be made by—
(a) the
person subject to the order; or
(b) the
Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland.
(2) The
application must be made by complaint under Part 8 of the Magistrates' Courts
(Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I. 26)) to a court of summary
jurisdiction for the petty sessions district which includes the area where the
person subject to the order resides.
(3) On
an application under this paragraph the court may make such order varying,
renewing or discharging the foreign travel restriction order as it considers
appropriate.
(4) It
may do so only after hearing the person making the application and (if they wish
to be heard) the other person mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).
Provisions of renewed or
varied order
11 (1) A foreign
travel restriction order may be renewed, or varied so as to impose additional
prohibitions, but only if it is necessary to do so for the purpose of preventing
the person subject to the order from taking part in terrorism activities outside
the United Kingdom.
(2) Any
renewed or varied order must contain only the prohibitions necessary for that
purpose.
Appeals
12 (1) In
England and Wales—
(a) a
person against whom a foreign travel restriction order is made may appeal
against the making of the order;
(b) a
person subject to a foreign travel restriction order may appeal against—
(i) an
order under paragraph 8 varying or renewing the order, or
(ii) a
refusal to make an order under that paragraph varying or discharging the
order.
(2) The
appeal lies to the Crown Court.
(3) On
an appeal under this paragraph the court may make—
(a) such orders as it considers necessary to give
effect to its determination of the appeal, and
(b) such incidental and consequential orders as
appear to it to be just.
13 (1) In
Scotland an interlocutor of the sheriff granting or refusing a foreign travel
restriction order, or an order under paragraph 9 (variation, renewal or
discharge of foreign travel restriction order), is appealable.
(2) Where an appeal is taken against such an
interlocutor, the interlocutor continues in effect pending disposal of the
appeal.
14 (1) In
Northern Ireland—
(a) a
person against whom a foreign travel restriction order is made may appeal
against the making of the order;
(b) a
person subject to a foreign travel restriction order may appeal against—
(i) an
order under paragraph 10 varying or renewing the order, or
(ii) a
refusal to make an order under that paragraph varying or discharging the
order.
(2) The
appeal lies to the county court.
(3) On
an appeal under this paragraph the court may make—
(a) such orders as it considers necessary to give
effect to its determination of the appeal, and
(b) such incidental and consequential orders as
appear to it to be just.
Breach of foreign travel
restriction order an offence
15 (1) A person
commits a offence who, without reasonable excuse—
(a) does anything they are prohibited from doing by a
foreign travel restriction order, or
(b) fails to comply with a requirement imposed on
them by such an order.
(2) A
person guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable—
(a) on
summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine
not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;
(b) on
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years or a
fine or both.
(3) In
the application of sub-paragraph (2)(a)—
(a) in
England and Wales, in relation to an offence committed before the commencement
of section 154(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (c. 44),
or
(b) in
Northern Ireland,
for “12 months” substitute “6 months”.
(4) Where a person is convicted of an offence under
this paragraph, it is not open to the court by or before which they are
convicted—
(a) in
England and Wales or Northern Ireland, to make an order for conditional
discharge in respect of the offence;
(b) in
Scotland, to make a probation order in respect of the offence.
Meaning of “terrorism
activity”
16 In this Schedule “terrorism activity” means
anything that—
(a) if
done in any part of the United Kingdom, would constitute an offence to which
this Part applies by virtue of section 41, or
(b) is,
or takes place in the course of, an act of terrorism or is for the purposes of
terrorism.
SCHEDULE 6 Notification requirements:
application to service offences
Service offences to
which this Part applies: terrorism offences
1 This Part applies to a service offence as
respects which the corresponding civil offence is an offence within section
41(1) or (2) (offences to which this Part applies: terrorism offences).
Service offences to
which this Part applies: offences having a terrorist connection
2 (1) This Part
applies to a service offence as to which the service court dealing with the
offence has determined in accordance with section 32 that the offence has a
terrorist connection.
(2) A
person to whom the notification requirements apply by virtue of such a
determination may appeal against it to the same court, and subject to the same
conditions, as an appeal against sentence.
(3) If
the determination is set aside on appeal, the notification requirements are
treated as never having applied to that person in respect of the offence.
Service offences dealt
with before commencement
3 (1) This Part
applies to a person dealt with for a service offence before the commencement of
this Part only if—
(a) the
corresponding civil offence is on the commencement of this Part within section
41(1) or (2) (offences to which this Part applies: terrorism offences),
and
(b) immediately before the commencement of this Part
the person—
(i) is
imprisoned or detained in pursuance of the sentence or other order made in
respect of the offence,
(ii) would be so imprisoned or detained but for being
unlawfully at large, absent without leave, on temporary leave or leave of
absence, or released from custody (or on bail) pending an appeal, or
(iii) is on licence having served the custodial part of
a sentence of imprisonment in respect of the offence.
(2) In
relation to a person dealt with for a service offence before the commencement of
this Part, any reference in this Schedule to a sentence, order or finding under
a specified statutory provision includes a sentence or order under any
corresponding earlier statutory provision.
Service offences:
persons to whom notification requirements apply
4 The notification requirements apply to a person
who—
(a) is
aged 16 or over at the time of being dealt with for a service offence to which
this Part applies, and
(b) is
made subject in respect of the offence to a sentence or order within paragraph 5
(sentences or orders triggering notification requirements).
Service offences:
sentences or orders triggering notification requirements
5 (1) The
notification requirements apply to a person who—
(a) has
been convicted of a service offence to which this Part applies and sentenced in
respect of the offence to—
(i) imprisonment or custody for life,
(ii) imprisonment or custodial order for a term of 12
months or more,
(iii) imprisonment or detention in a young offender
institution for public protection under section 225 of the Criminal Justice Act
2003 (c.
44),
(iv) detention for life or for a period of 12 months
or more under section 71A(4) of the Army Act 1955 or the Air Force Act 1955,
section 43A(4) of the Naval Discipline Act 1957 or section 209 of the Armed
Forces Act 2006 (c.
52),
(v) detention and training (and supervision) under
section 211 of that Act, where the term of the order under that section is 12
months or more,
(vi) detention for public protection under section 226
of the Criminal Justice Act 2003, or
(vii) detention during Her Majesty’s pleasure;
or
(b) has
been—
(i) convicted of a service offence to which this Part
applies carrying a maximum term of imprisonment of 12 months or more,
(ii) found not guilty by reason of insanity of such an
offence, or
(iii) found to be unfit to stand trial and to have done
the act charged against them in respect of such an offence,
and made subject in respect of the offence to a
hospital order.
(2) The
reference in sub-paragraph (1)(b)(i) to an offence carrying a maximum term of
imprisonment of 12 months or more—
(a) is
to an offence carrying such a maximum term in the case of a person who has
attained the age of 18 (or 21, as respects any time before the coming into force
of section 61 of the Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000 (c. 43)),
and
(b) includes an offence carrying in the case of such
a person a maximum term of life imprisonment and an offence for which in the
case of such a person the sentence is fixed by law as life imprisonment.
Service offences: power
to amend specified terms or periods of imprisonment or detention
6 (1) The
Secretary of State may by order amend the provisions of paragraph 5 referring to
a specified term or period of imprisonment or detention.
(2) An
order reducing a specified term or period has effect only in relation to persons
dealt with after the order comes into force.
(3) Where an order increases a specified term or
period—
(a) it
has effect in relation to persons dealt with at any time, whether before or
after the order comes into force, and
(b) a
person who would not have been subject to the notification requirements if the
order had been in force when the offence was dealt with (and who is not
otherwise subject to those requirements) ceases to be subject to the
requirements when the order comes into force.
(4) An
order under this paragraph is subject to affirmative resolution
procedure.
Service offences: period
for which notification requirements apply
7 (1) The
period for which the notification requirements apply is—
(a) 30
years in the case of a person who—
(i) is
aged 18 or over at the time of conviction for the service offence, and
(ii) receives in respect of the offence a sentence
within sub-paragraph (2);
(b) 15
years in the case of a person who—
(i) is
aged 18 or over at the time of conviction for the service offence, and
(ii) receives in respect of the offence a sentence
within sub-paragraph (3);
(c) 10
years in any other case.
(2) The
sentences where a 30 year period applies are—
(a) imprisonment or custody for life,
(b) imprisonment or a custodial order for a term of
10 years or more,
(c) imprisonment or detention in a young offender
institution for public protection under section 225 of the Criminal Justice Act
2003 (c.
44),
(d) detention during Her Majesty’s pleasure.
(3) The
sentences where a 15 year period applies are imprisonment or a custodial order
for a term of 5 years or more but less than 10 years.
(4) The
period begins with the day on which the person is dealt with for the
offence.
(5) If
a person who is the subject of a finding within paragraph 5(1)(b)(iii) (finding
of unfitness to stand trial etc) is subsequently tried for the offence, the period
resulting from that finding ends—
(a) if
the person is acquitted, at the conclusion of the trial;
(b) if
the person is convicted, when the person is again dealt with in respect of the
offence.
(6) For
the purposes of determining the length of the period—
(a) a
person who has been sentenced in respect of two or more terrorism offences to
consecutive terms of imprisonment is treated as if sentenced, in respect of each
of the offences, to a term of imprisonment equal to the aggregate of the terms;
and
(b) a
person who has been sentenced in respect of two or more such offences to
concurrent terms of imprisonment (X and Y) that overlap for a period (Z) is
treated as if sentenced, in respect of each of the offences, to a term of
imprisonment equal to X plus Y minus Z.
(7) In
determining whether the period has expired, there shall be disregarded any
period when the person was—
(a) remanded in or committed to custody by an order
of a court,
(b) in
service custody pursuant to a decision of a court or judge advocate (or an order
of a commanding officer under section 110 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (c.
52)),
(c) serving a sentence of imprisonment or
detention,
(d) detained in a hospital, or
(e) detained under the Immigration Acts.
(8) In
sub-paragraph (7)(b)—
(a) “service custody” includes, in relation to times
before the commencement of the relevant provisions of the Armed Forces Act 2006,
military custody, air-force custody and naval custody;
(b) “judge advocate” includes, in relation to such
times, judicial officer;
(c) the
reference to section 110 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 includes, in relation to
times before the commencement of that section, a reference to—
(i) section 75K of the Army Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 18) or the Air Force Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz.
2 c. 19);
(ii) section 47L of the Naval Discipline Act 1957 (c.
53).
Modifications in
relation to service offences etc
8 (1) In the
following provisions, references to a person committed to custody by an order of
a court include a person in service custody pursuant to a decision of a court or
judge advocate (or an order of a commanding officer under section 110 of the
Armed Forces Act 2006)—
(a) section 47(4) (initial notification);
(b) section 48(8) (notification of changes);
(c) section 49(2) (periodic re-notification);
(d) section 53(7) (period for which requirements
apply);
(e) section 56(3) (notification on return after
absence from UK).
(2) In
section 48(4) (notification on release from custody etc) the reference to
custody pursuant to an order of a court includes service custody pursuant to a
decision of a court or judge advocate (or an order of a commanding officer under
section 110 of the Armed Forces Act 2006).
(3) Paragraph 7(8) (meaning of “service custody” and
“judge advocate” etc) applies for the purposes of this paragraph.
9 In the application of section 47(6) (initial
notification: person dealt with before commencement) in relation to a service
offence, the reference to a person being on bail pending an appeal includes a
person released from custody pending an appeal.
10 Where in relation to a service offence the court
of trial (as defined by subsection (2) of section 51 (meaning of “local police
area”)) was situated outside the United Kingdom, that section has effect as if
subsection (1)(c) were omitted.
11 References in this Part to a sentence of
detention do not include—
(a) a
sentence of service detention (as defined by section 374 of the Armed Forces Act
2006 (c. 52)),
or
(b) a
corresponding sentence passed under (or by virtue of) the Army Act 1955 (3 &
4 Eliz. 2 c. 18), the Air Force Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 19) or the Naval
Discipline Act 1957 (c. 53).
12 The following provisions do not apply in relation
to service offences—
(a) section 43 (offences dealt with before
commencement);
(b) section 45 (sentences or orders triggering
notification requirements);
(c) section 53 (period for which requirements
apply).
Application of power to
make transitional modifications etc
13 An order under subsection (4) of section 380 of
the Armed Forces Act 2006 (power to make transitional modifications etc) which
makes provision of the kind mentioned in subsection (6) of that section may
provide for paragraph 5(1)(a) or paragraph 7(2) or (3) above to have effect with
such modifications (relating to custodial punishments specified in the order) as
are so specified.
SCHEDULE 7 Terrorist financing and money
laundering
Part
1 Conditions for giving a
direction
Conditions for
giving a direction
1 (1) The
Treasury may give a direction under this Schedule if one or more of the
following conditions is met in relation to a country.
(2) The
first condition is that the Financial Action Task Force has advised that
measures should be taken in relation to the country because of the risk of
terrorist financing or money laundering activities being carried on—
(a) in
the country,
(b) by
the government of the country, or
(c) by
persons resident or incorporated in the country.
(3) The
second condition is that the Treasury reasonably believe that there is a risk
that terrorist financing or money laundering activities are being carried
on—
(a) in
the country,
(b) by
the government of the country, or
(c) by
persons resident or incorporated in the country,
and that this poses a significant risk to the
national interests of the United Kingdom.
(4) The
third condition is that the Treasury reasonably believe that—
(a) the
development or production of nuclear, radiological, biological or chemical
weapons in the country, or
(b) the
doing in the country of anything that facilitates the development or production
of any such weapons,
poses a significant risk to the national interests
of the United Kingdom.
(5) The
power to give a direction is not exercisable in relation to an EEA state.
Main
definitions
2 (1) “Terrorist financing” means—
(a) the
use of funds, or the making available of funds, for the purposes of terrorism,
or
(b) the
acquisition, possession, concealment, conversion or transfer of funds that are
(directly or indirectly) to be used or made available for those purposes.
(2) “Money laundering” means an act which falls
within section 340(11) of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (c.
29).
(3) “Nuclear weapon” includes a nuclear explosive
device that is not intended for use as a weapon.
(4) “Radiological weapon” means a device designed to
cause destruction, damage or injury by means of the radiation produced by the
decay of radioactive material.
(5) “Chemical weapon” means a chemical weapon as
defined by section 1(1) of the Chemical Weapons Act 1996 (c. 6), other
than one whose intended use is only for permitted purposes (as defined by
section 1(3) of that Act).
(6) “Biological weapon” means anything within section
1(1)(a) or (b) of the Biological Weapons Act 1974 (c. 6).
Part
2 Persons to whom a
direction may be given
Persons to whom
a direction may be given
3 (1) A
direction under this Schedule may be given to—
(a) a
particular person operating in the financial sector,
(b) any
description of persons operating in that sector, or
(c) all
persons operating in that sector.
(2) In
this Schedule “relevant person”, in relation to a direction, means any of the
persons to whom the direction is given.
(3) A
direction may make different provision in relation to different descriptions of
relevant person.
Persons operating in
the financial sector
4 (1) Any
reference in this Schedule to a person operating in the financial sector is to a
credit or financial institution that—
(a) is
a United Kingdom person, or
(b) is
acting in the course of a business carried on by it in the United
Kingdom.
(2) This is subject to the exceptions in paragraph
6.
Meaning of “credit
institution” and “financial institution”
5 (1) “Credit
institution” means—
(a) a
credit institution as defined in Article 4(1)(a) of the banking consolidation
directive, or
(b) a
branch (within the meaning of Article 4(3) of that directive) located in an EEA
state of—
(i) an
institution within sub-paragraph (a), or
(ii) an
equivalent institution whose head office is located in a non-EEA state,
when it accepts deposits or other repayable funds
from the public or grants credits for its own account (within the meaning of the
banking consolidation directive).
(2) “Financial institution” means—
(a) an
undertaking, including a money service business, when it carries out one or more
of the activities listed in points 2 to 12 and 14 of Annex 1 to the banking
consolidation directive, other than—
(i) a
credit institution;
(ii) an
undertaking whose only listed activity is trading for own account in one or more
of the products listed in point 7 of Annex 1 to the banking consolidation
directive where the undertaking does not have a customer,
and for this purpose “customer” means a person who
is not a member of the same group as the undertaking;
(b) an
insurance company duly authorised in accordance with the life assurance
consolidation directive, when it carries out activities covered by that
directive;
(c) a
person whose regular occupation or business is the provision to other persons of
an investment service or the performance of an investment activity on a
professional basis, when providing or performing investment services or
activities (within the meaning of the markets in financial instruments
directive), other than a person falling within Article 2 of that
directive;
(d) a
collective investment undertaking, when marketing or otherwise offering its
units or shares;
(e) an
insurance intermediary as defined in Article 2(5) of Directive 2002/92/EC of
the European Parliament and of the Council of 9th December 2002 on insurance
mediation (other than a tied insurance intermediary as mentioned in Article 2(7)
of that Directive), when it acts in respect of contracts of long-term insurance
within the meaning given by article 3(1) of, and Part II of Schedule 1 to, the
Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001
(S.I. 2001/544);
(f) a
branch located in an EEA state of—
(i) a
person referred to in any of paragraphs (a) to (e), or
(ii) a
person equivalent to a person within any of those paragraphs whose head office
is located in a non-EEA state,
when carrying out any activity mentioned in that
paragraph;
(g) an
insurance company (as defined by section 1165(3) of the Companies Act 2006 (c.
46));
(h) the
National Savings Bank;
(i) the
Director of Savings, when money is raised under the auspices of the Director
under the National Loans Act 1968 (c. 13).
Exceptions
6 (1) For the
purposes of this Schedule the following are not regarded as persons operating in
the financial sector when carrying out any of the following activities—
(a) a
society registered under the Industrial and Provident Societies Act 1965 (c.
12), when it—
(i) issues withdrawable share capital within the
limit set by section 6 of that Act (maximum shareholding in society); or
(ii) accepts deposits from the public within the limit
set by section 7(3) of that Act (carrying on of banking by societies);
(b) a
society registered under the Industrial and Provident Societies Act (Northern
Ireland) 1969 (c. 24 (N.I.)), when it—
(i) issues withdrawable share capital within the
limit set by section 6 of that Act (maximum shareholding in society); or
(ii) accepts deposits from the public within the limit
set by section 7(3) of that Act (carrying on of banking by societies);
(c) a
person within any of paragraphs 1 to 23 or 25 to 51 of the Schedule to the
Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Exemption) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/1201),
when carrying out an activity in respect of which the person is exempt;
(d) a
person who was an exempted person for the purposes of section 45 of the
Financial Services Act 1986 (c. 60) (miscellaneous exemptions) immediately
before its repeal, when exercising the functions specified in that
section.
(2) A
person who falls within the definition of “credit institution” or “financial
institution” solely as a result of engaging in financial activity on an
occasional or very limited basis is not regarded for the purposes of this
Schedule as operating in the financial sector.
(3) For
the purposes of sub-paragraph (2) a person is regarded as engaging in a
financial activity on an occasional or very limited basis if—
(a) the
person’s total annual turnover in respect of the financial activity does not
exceed £64,000,
(b) the
financial activity is limited in relation to any customer to no more than one
transaction exceeding 1,000 euro (whether the transaction is carried out in a
single operation or a series of operations which appear to be linked),
(c) the
financial activity does not exceed 5% of the person’s total annual
turnover,
(d) the
financial activity is ancillary and directly related to the person’s main
activity,
(e) the
financial activity is not the transmission or remittance of money (or any
representation of monetary value) by any means,
(f) the
person’s main activity is not that of a credit or financial institution,
and
(g) the
financial activity is provided only to customers of the person’s main
activity.
Interpretation of
this Part
7 In this Part of this Schedule—
-
“the banking consolidation directive”
means Directive 2006/48/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 14th
June 2006 relating to the taking up and pursuit of the business of credit
institutions;
-
“the life assurance consolidation
directive” means Directive 2002/83/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 5th
November 2002 concerning life assurance;
-
“the markets in financial instruments
directive” means Directive 2004/39/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 12th
April 2004 on markets in financial instruments.
Power to
amend
8 (1) The
Treasury may by order amend paragraphs 4 to 7.
(2) Any
such order is subject to affirmative resolution procedure.
Part
3 Requirements that may
be imposed by a direction
Requirements
that may be imposed by a direction
9 (1) A
direction under this Schedule may impose requirements in relation to
transactions or business relationships with—
(a) a
person carrying on business in the country;
(b) the
government of the country;
(c) a
person resident or incorporated in the country.
(2) The
direction may impose requirements in relation to—
(a) a
particular person within sub-paragraph (1),
(b) any
description of persons within that sub-paragraph, or
(c) all
persons within that sub-paragraph.
(3) In
this Schedule “designated person”, in relation to a direction, means any of the
persons in relation to whom the direction is given.
(4) The
kinds of requirement that may be imposed by a direction under this Schedule are
specified in—
-
paragraph 10 (customer due
diligence);
-
paragraph 11 (ongoing monitoring);
-
paragraph 12 (systematic
reporting);
-
paragraph 13 (limiting or ceasing
business).
(5) A
direction may make different provision—
(a) in
relation to different descriptions of designated person, and
(b) in
relation to different descriptions of transaction or business
relationship.
(6) The
requirements imposed by a direction must be proportionate having regard to the
advice mentioned in paragraph 1(2) or, as the case may be, the risk mentioned in
paragraph 1(3) or (4) to the national interests of the United Kingdom.
Customer due
diligence
10 (1) A
direction may require a relevant person to undertake enhanced customer due
diligence measures—
(a) before entering into a transaction or business
relationship with a designated person, and
(b) during a business relationship with such a
person.
(2) The
direction may do either or both of the following—
(a) impose a general obligation to undertake enhanced
customer due diligence measures;
(b) require a relevant person to undertake specific
measures identified or described in the direction.
(3) “Customer due diligence measures” means measures
to—
(a) establish the identity of the designated
person,
(b) obtain information about—
(i) the
designated person and their business, and
(ii) the source of their funds, and
(c) assess the risk of the designated person being
involved in relevant activities.
(4) In
sub-paragraph (3)(c) “relevant activities” means—
(a) terrorist financing;
(b) money laundering; or
(c) the
development or production of nuclear, radiological, biological or chemical
weapons or the facilitation of that development or production.
(5) A
direction may not impose requirements of a kind mentioned in this paragraph on a
person who is regarded as operating in the financial sector by virtue only of
paragraph 5(2)(g) (certain insurance companies).
Ongoing
monitoring
11 (1) A
direction may require a relevant person to undertake enhanced ongoing monitoring
of any business relationship with a designated person.
(2) The
direction may do either or both of the following—
(a) impose a general obligation to undertake enhanced
ongoing monitoring;
(b) require a relevant person to undertake specific
measures identified or described in the direction.
(3) “Ongoing monitoring” of a business relationship
means—
(a) keeping up to date information and documents
obtained for the purposes of customer due diligence measures, and
(b) scrutinising transactions undertaken during the
course of the relationship (and, where appropriate, the source of funds for
those transactions) to ascertain whether the transactions are consistent with
the relevant person’s knowledge of the designated person and their
business.
(4) A
direction may not impose requirements of a kind mentioned in this paragraph on a
person who is regarded as operating in the financial sector by virtue only of
paragraph 5(2)(g) (certain insurance companies).
Systematic
reporting
12 (1) A
direction may require a relevant person to provide such information and
documents as may be specified in the direction relating to transactions and
business relationships with designated persons.
(2) A
direction imposing such a requirement must specify how the direction is to be
complied with, including—
(a) the
person to whom the information and documents are to be provided, and
(b) the
period within which, or intervals at which, information and documents are to be
provided.
(3) The
power conferred by this paragraph is not exercisable in relation to information
or documents in respect of which a claim to legal professional privilege (in
Scotland, to confidentiality of communications) could be maintained in legal
proceedings.
(4) The
exercise of the power conferred by this paragraph and the provision of
information under it is not otherwise subject to any restriction on the
disclosure of information, whether imposed by statute or otherwise.
Limiting or ceasing
business
13 A direction may require a relevant person not to
enter into or continue to participate in—
(a) a
specified transaction or business relationship with a designated person,
(b) a
specified description of transactions or business relationships with a
designated person, or
(c) any
transaction or business relationship with a designated person.
Part
4 Procedural provisions
and licensing
General
directions to be given by order
14 (1) A
direction given to—
(a) a
description of persons operating in the financial sector, or
(b) all
persons operating in that sector,
must be contained in an order made by the
Treasury.
(2) If
the order contains requirements of a kind mentioned in paragraph 13 (limiting or
ceasing business)—
(a) it
must be laid before Parliament after being made, and
(b) if
not approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament before the end of 28
days beginning with the day on which it is made, it ceases to have effect at the
end of that period.
In calculating the period of 28 days, no account is
to be taken of any time during which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or
during which both Houses are adjourned for more than 4 days.
(3) An
order’s ceasing to have effect in accordance with sub-paragraph (2) does not
affect anything done under the order.
(4) An
order to which sub-paragraph (2) does not apply is subject to negative
resolution procedure.
(5) If
apart from this sub-paragraph an order under this paragraph would be treated for
the purposes of the standing orders of either House of Parliament as a hybrid
instrument, it is to proceed in that House as if it were not such an
instrument.
Specific directions:
notification and duration of directions
15 (1) This
paragraph applies in relation to a direction given to a particular
person.
(2) The
Treasury must give notice of the direction to the person.
(3) The
direction (if not previously revoked and whether or not varied) ceases to have
effect at the end of the period of one year beginning with the day on which the
direction is given.
This is without prejudice to the giving of a further
direction.
(4) The
Treasury may vary or revoke the direction at any time.
(5) Where the direction is varied or ceases to have
effect (whether on revocation or otherwise), the Treasury must give notice of
that fact to the person.
General directions:
publication and duration of directions
16 (1) This
paragraph applies to an order containing directions under paragraph 14 (general
directions given by order).
(2) The
Treasury must take such steps as they consider appropriate to publicise the
making of the order.
(3) An
order—
(a) revoking the order, or
(b) varying the order so as to make its provisions
less onerous,
is subject to negative resolution procedure.
(4) The
order (if not previously revoked and whether or not varied) ceases to have
effect at the end of the period of one year beginning with the day on which it
was made.
This is without prejudice to the making of a further
order.
(5) Where the order is varied or ceases to have
effect (whether on revocation or otherwise), the Treasury must take such steps
as they consider appropriate to publicise that fact.
Directions limiting
or ceasing business: exemption by licence
17 (1) The
following provisions apply where a direction contains requirements of a kind
mentioned in paragraph 13 (limiting or ceasing business).
(2) The
Treasury may grant a licence to exempt acts specified in the licence from those
requirements.
(3) A
licence may be—
(a) general or granted to a description of persons or
to a particular person;
(b) subject to conditions;
(c) of
indefinite duration or subject to an expiry date.
(4) The
Treasury may vary or revoke a licence at any time.
(5) On
the grant, variation or revocation of a licence, the Treasury must—
(a) in
the case of a licence granted to a particular person, give notice of the grant,
variation or revocation to that person;
(b) in
the case of a general licence or a licence granted to a description of persons,
take such steps as the Treasury consider appropriate to publicise the grant,
variation or revocation of the licence.
Part
5 Enforcement:
information powers
Enforcement
authorities and officers
18 (1) In this
Schedule “enforcement authority” means—
(a) the
Financial Services Authority (“the FSA”),
(b) the
Commissioners for Her Majesty’s Revenue and Customs (“HMRC”),
(c) the
Office of Fair Trading (“the OFT”), or
(d) in
relation to credit unions in Northern Ireland, the Department of Enterprise,
Trade and Investment in Northern Ireland (“DETINI”).
(2) In
this Part of this Schedule “enforcement officer” means—
(a) an
officer of the FSA, including a member of the staff or an agent of the
FSA,
(b) an
officer of Revenue and Customs,
(c) an
officer of the OFT,
(d) an
officer of DETINI acting for the purposes of its functions under this Schedule
in relation to credit unions in Northern Ireland, or
(e) a
local enforcement officer.
(3) A
“local enforcement officer” means—
(a) in
Great Britain, an officer of a local weights and measures authority;
(b) in
Northern Ireland, an officer of DETINI acting pursuant to arrangements made with
the OFT for the purposes of this Schedule.
Power to require
information or documents
19 (1) An
enforcement officer may by notice to a relevant person require the
person—
(a) to
provide such information as may be specified in the notice, or
(b) to
produce such documents as may be so specified.
(2) An
officer may exercise powers under this paragraph only if the information or
documents sought to be obtained as a result are reasonably required in
connection with the exercise by the enforcement authority for whom the officer
acts of its functions under this Schedule.
(3) Where an officer requires information to be
provided or documents produced under this paragraph—
(a) the
notice must set out the reasons why the officer requires the information to be
provided or the documents produced, and
(b) the
information must be provided or the documents produced—
(i) before the end of such reasonable period as may
be specified in the notice; and
(ii) at
such place as may be so specified.
(4) In
relation to a document in electronic form the power to require production of it
includes a power to require the production of a copy of it in legible form or in
a form from which it can readily be produced in visible and legible form.
(5) An
enforcement officer may take copies of, or make extracts from, any document
produced under this paragraph.
(6) The
production of a document does not affect any lien which a person has on the
document.
Entry, inspection
without a warrant etc
20 (1) Where an
enforcement officer has reasonable cause to believe that any premises are being
used by a relevant person in connection with the person’s business activities,
the officer may on producing evidence of authority at any reasonable
time—
(a) enter the premises;
(b) inspect the premises;
(c) observe the carrying on of business activities by
the relevant person;
(d) inspect any document found on the
premises;
(e) require any person on the premises to provide an
explanation of any document or to state where it may be found.
(2) An
enforcement officer may take copies of, or make extracts from, any document
found under sub-paragraph (1).
(3) An
officer may exercise powers under this paragraph only if the information or
document sought to be obtained as a result is reasonably required in connection
with the exercise by the enforcement authority for whom the officer acts of its
functions under this Schedule.
(4) In
this paragraph “premises” means any premises other than premises used only as a
dwelling.
Entry to premises
under warrant
21 (1) A justice
may issue a warrant under this paragraph if satisfied on information on oath
given by an enforcement officer that there are reasonable grounds for believing
that the first, second or third set of conditions is satisfied.
(2) The
first set of conditions is—
(a) that there is on the premises specified in the
warrant a document in relation to which a requirement could be imposed under
paragraph 19(1)(b), and
(b) that if such a requirement were to be
imposed—
(i) it
would not be complied with, or
(ii) the document to which it relates would be
removed, tampered with or destroyed.
(3) The
second set of conditions is—
(a) that a person on whom a requirement has been
imposed under paragraph 19(1)(b) has failed (wholly or in part) to comply with
it, and
(b) that there is on the premises specified in the
warrant a document that has been required to be produced.
(4) The
third set of conditions is—
(a) that an enforcement officer has been obstructed
in the exercise of a power under paragraph 20, and
(b) that there is on the premises specified in the
warrant a document that could be inspected under paragraph 20(1)(d).
(5) A
justice may issue a warrant under this paragraph if satisfied on information on
oath given by an officer that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting
that—
(a) an
offence under this Schedule has been, is being or is about to be committed by a
relevant person, and
(b) there is on the premises specified in the warrant
a document relevant to whether that offence has been, or is being or is about to
be committed.
(6) A
warrant issued under this paragraph shall authorise an enforcement
officer—
(a) to
enter the premises specified in the warrant;
(b) to
search the premises and take possession of anything appearing to be a document
specified in the warrant or to take, in relation to any such document, any other
steps which may appear to be necessary for preserving it or preventing
interference with it;
(c) to
take copies of, or extracts from, any document specified in the warrant;
(d) to
require any person on the premises to provide an explanation of any document
appearing to be of the kind specified in the warrant or to state where it may be
found;
(e) to
use such force as may reasonably be necessary.
(7) Where a warrant is issued by a justice under
sub-paragraph (1) or (5) on the basis of information on oath given by an officer
of the FSA, for “an enforcement officer” in sub-paragraph (6) substitute “a
constable”.
(8) In
sub-paragraphs (1), (5) and (7), “justice” means—
(a) in
relation to England and Wales, a justice of the peace;
(b) in
relation to Scotland, a justice within the meaning of section 307 of the
Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46)
(interpretation);
(c) in
relation to Northern Ireland, a lay magistrate.
(9) In
the application of this paragraph to Scotland, the references in sub-paragraphs
(1), (5) and (7) to information on oath are to be read as references to evidence
on oath.
Restrictions on
powers
22 (1) This
paragraph applies in relation to the powers conferred by—
(a) paragraph 19 (power to require information or
documents),
(b) paragraph 20 (entry, inspection without warrant
etc), or
(c) paragraph 21 (entry to premises under
warrant).
(2) Those powers are not exercisable in relation to
information or documents in respect of which a claim to legal professional
privilege (in Scotland, to confidentiality of communications) could be
maintained in legal proceedings.
(3) The
exercise of those powers and the provision of information or production of
documents under them is not otherwise subject to any restriction on the
disclosure of information, whether imposed by statute or otherwise.
Failure to comply
with information requirement
23 (1) If on an
application made by—
(a) an
enforcement authority, or
(b) a
local weights and measures authority or DETINI pursuant to arrangements made
with the OFT—
(i) by
or on behalf of the authority; or
(ii) by
DETINI,
it appears to the court that a person (the
“information defaulter”) has failed to do something that they were required to
do under paragraph 19(1), the court may make an order under this paragraph.
(2) An
order under this paragraph may require the information defaulter—
(a) to
do the thing that they failed to do within such period as may be specified in
the order;
(b) otherwise to take such steps to remedy the
consequences of the failure as may be so specified.
(3) If
the information defaulter is a body corporate, a partnership or an
unincorporated body of persons that is not a partnership, the order may require
any officer of the body corporate, partnership or body, who is (wholly or
partly) responsible for the failure to meet such costs of the application as are
specified in the order.
(4) In
this paragraph “the court” means—
(a) in
England and Wales and Northern Ireland, the High Court or the county
court;
(b) in
Scotland, the Court of Session or the sheriff court.
Powers of local
enforcement officers
24 (1) A local
enforcement officer may only exercise powers under this Part of this Schedule
pursuant to arrangements made with the OFT—
(a) by
or on behalf of the relevant local weights and measures authority, or
(b) by
DETINI.
(2) Anything done or omitted to be done by, or in
relation to, a local enforcement officer in the exercise or purported exercise
of a power in this Part of this Schedule is treated for all purposes as if done
or omitted to be done by, or in relation to, an officer of the OFT.
(3) Sub-paragraph (2) does not apply for the purposes
of criminal proceedings brought against the local enforcement officer, the
relevant local weights and measures authority, DETINI or the OFT, in respect of
anything done or omitted to be done by the officer.
(4) A
local enforcement officer must not disclose to any person other than the OFT and
the relevant local weights and measures authority or, as the case may be, DETINI
information obtained by the officer in the exercise of powers under this Part of
this Schedule unless—
(a) the
officer has the approval of the OFT to do so, or
(b) the
officer is under a duty to make the disclosure.
(5) In
this paragraph “the relevant local weights and measures authority”, in relation
to a local enforcement officer, means the authority of which the officer is an
officer.
Part
6 Enforcement: civil
penalties
Power to impose
civil penalties
25 (1) An
enforcement authority may impose a penalty of such amount as it considers
appropriate on a person who fails to comply with a requirement imposed—
(a) by
a direction under this Schedule, or
(b) by
a condition of a licence under paragraph 17.
For this purpose “appropriate” means effective,
proportionate and dissuasive.
(2) No
such penalty is to be imposed if the authority is satisfied that the person took
all reasonable steps and exercised all due diligence to ensure that the
requirement would be complied with.
(3) In
deciding whether to impose a penalty for failure to comply with a requirement,
an enforcement authority must consider whether the person followed any relevant
guidance which was at the time—
(a) issued by a supervisory authority or any other
appropriate body,
(b) approved by the Treasury, and
(c) published in a manner approved by the Treasury as
suitable in their opinion to bring the guidance to the attention of persons
likely to be affected by it.
(4) In
sub-paragraph (3) “appropriate body” means a body which regulates or is
representative of any trade, profession, business or employment carried on by
the person.
(5) A
person on whom a penalty is imposed under this paragraph is not liable to be
proceeded against for an offence under paragraph 30 in respect of the same
failure.
Imposition of
penalty by HMRC:
procedure and reviews
26 (1) This
paragraph applies where HMRC decide to impose a penalty under paragraph 25 on a
person.
(2) HMRC must give the person notice of—
(a) their decision to impose the penalty and its
amount,
(b) the
reasons for imposing the penalty,
(c) the
right to a review under this paragraph, and
(d) the
right to appeal under paragraph 28.
(3) The
person may by notice to HMRC require them to review their decision.
(4) A
notice requiring a review may not be given after the end of the period of 45
days beginning with the day on which HMRC first gave the person notice under
sub-paragraph (2).
(5) On
a review under this paragraph, HMRC must either—
(a) confirm the decision, or
(b) withdraw or vary the decision and take such
further steps (if any) in consequence of the withdrawal or variation as they
consider appropriate.
(6) Where HMRC do not, within the period of 45 days
beginning with the day the notice under sub-paragraph (3) was given, give notice
to the person of their determination of the review, they are to be taken to have
confirmed their decision.
Imposition of
penalty by other enforcement authority: procedure
27 (1) This
paragraph applies if the FSA, the OFT or DETINI (“the authority”) proposes to
impose a penalty under paragraph 25 on a person.
(2) The
authority must give the person notice of—
(a) the
proposal to impose the penalty and the proposed amount,
(b) the
reasons for imposing the penalty, and
(c) the
right to make representations to the authority within a specified period (which
may not be less than 28 days).
(3) The
authority must then decide, within a reasonable period, whether to impose a
penalty under paragraph 25 and must give the person notice—
(a) if
it decides not to impose a penalty, of that decision;
(b) if
it decides to impose a penalty, of the following matters—
(i) the
decision to impose a penalty and the amount,
(ii) the reasons for the decision, and
(iii) the right to appeal under paragraph 28.
Appeal against
imposition of civil penalty
28 (1) A person
may appeal to the tribunal against—
(a) a
decision of HMRC on a review under paragraph 26;
(b) a
decision of the FSA or the OFT under paragraph 27.
(2) A
person may appeal to the High Court in Northern Ireland against a decision of
DETINI under paragraph 27.
(3) On
the appeal the tribunal or court may—
(a) set
aside the decision appealed against, and
(b) impose any penalty that could have been imposed
by the body whose decision is appealed or remit the matter to that body.
(4) An
appeal against a decision of HMRC may not be made after the end of the period of
30 days beginning with—
(a) the
date of the document notifying the person of the decision, or
(b) if
paragraph 26(6) (deemed confirmation of decision) applies, the day after the end
of the period mentioned there.
(5) In
this paragraph “the tribunal” means the First-tier Tribunal or, where so
provided by or determined under Tribunal Procedure Rules, the Upper
Tribunal.
(6) The
Treasury may by order provide that, until a time specified in the order, appeals
under sub-paragraph (1) are to be made—
(a) in
the case of a decision of HMRC, to a VAT and duties tribunal;
(b) in
the case of a decision of the FSA, to the Financial Services and Markets
Tribunal;
(c) in
the case of a decision of the OFT, to the Consumer Credit Appeals
Tribunal;
(rather than to the tribunal).
(7) An
order under sub-paragraph (6) may provide that any enactment applies (with or
without modifications) in relation to an appeal to a tribunal mentioned in
paragraph (a), (b) or (c) of that sub-paragraph.
(8) Such an order is subject to negative resolution
procedure.
Payment and recovery
of civil penalties
29 (1) A penalty
imposed under paragraph 25 is payable to the enforcement authority that imposed
it.
(2) Any
such penalty is a debt due to the authority and is recoverable
accordingly.
Part
7 Enforcement:
offences
Offences:
failure to comply with requirement imposed by direction
30 (1) A person
who fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a direction under this
Schedule commits an offence, subject to the following provisions.
(2) No
offence is committed if the person took all reasonable steps and exercised all
due diligence to ensure that the requirement would be complied with.
(3) In
deciding whether a person has committed an offence under this paragraph the
court must consider whether the person followed any relevant guidance that was
at the time—
(a) issued by a supervisory authority or any other
appropriate body,
(b) approved by the Treasury, and
(c) published in a manner approved by the Treasury as
suitable in their opinion to bring the guidance to the attention of persons
likely to be affected by it.
(4) In
sub-paragraph (3) “appropriate body” means a body that regulates or is
representative of any trade, profession, business or employment carried on by
the alleged offender.
(5) A
person guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable—
(a) on
summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum;
(b) on
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or
a fine or both.
(6) A
person who is convicted of an offence under this paragraph is not liable to a
penalty under paragraph 25 in respect of the same failure.
Offences in
connection with licences
31 (1) A person
commits an offence who for the purpose of obtaining a licence under paragraph
17—
(a) provides information that is false in a material
respect or a document that is not what it purports to be, and
(b) knows that, or is reckless as to whether, the
information is false or the document is not what it purports to be.
(2) A
person guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on conviction on
indictment to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or a fine or
both.
Extra-territorial
application of offences
32 (1) An
offence under this Schedule may be committed by a United Kingdom person by
conduct wholly or partly outside the United Kingdom.
(2) Nothing in this paragraph affects any criminal
liability arising otherwise than under this paragraph.
Prosecution of
offences
33 (1) Proceedings for an offence under this Schedule
may be instituted in England and Wales only by—
(a) the
FSA;
(b) the
Director of Revenue and Customs Prosecutions;
(c) the
OFT;
(d) a
local weights and measures authority; or
(e) the
Director of Public Prosecutions.
(2) Proceedings for an offence under this Schedule
may be instituted in Northern Ireland only by—
(a) the
FSA;
(b) HMRC;
(c) the
OFT;
(d) DETINI; or
(e) the
Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland.
(3) In
section 168(4) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8)
(appointment by FSA of persons to carry out investigation), after paragraph (b)
insert—
“(ba) a person may be guilty of an offence under
Schedule 7 to the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (terrorist financing or money
laundering);”.
(4) In
section 402(1) of that Act (power of FSA to institute proceedings), omit the
“or” before paragraph (b) and after that paragraph insert— “or
(c) Schedule 7 to the Counter-Terrorism Act
2008 (terrorist financing or money laundering).”.
(5) HMRC may conduct a criminal investigation into
any offence under this Schedule.
(6) In
sub-paragraph (5) “criminal investigation” has the meaning given by section
35(5)(b) of the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005 (c.
11).
Jurisdiction to try
offences
34 Where an offence under this Schedule is committed
outside the United Kingdom—
(a) proceedings for the offence may be taken at any
place in the United Kingdom, and
(b) the
offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at
any such place.
Time limit for
summary proceedings
35 (1) An
information relating to an offence under this Schedule that is triable by a
magistrates' court in England and Wales may be so tried if it is laid—
(a) at
any time within three years after the commission of the offence, and
(b) within twelve months after the date on which
evidence sufficient in the opinion of the prosecutor to justify the proceedings
comes to the knowledge of the prosecutor.
(2) Summary proceedings in Scotland for an offence
under this Schedule—
(a) must not be commenced after the expiration of
three years from the commission of the offence;
(b) subject to that, may be commenced at any time
within twelve months after the date on which evidence sufficient in the Lord
Advocate’s opinion to justify the proceedings came to the knowledge of the Lord
Advocate.
Section 136(3) of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland)
Act 1995 (c.
46) (date when proceedings deemed to be commenced) applies for the purposes
of this sub-paragraph as for the purposes of that section.
(3) A
magistrates' court in Northern Ireland has jurisdiction to hear and determine a
complaint charging the commission of a summary offence under this Schedule
provided that the complaint is made—
(a) within three years from the time when the offence
was committed, and
(b) within twelve months from the date on which
evidence sufficient in the opinion of the prosecutor to justify the proceedings
comes to the knowledge of the prosecutor.
(4) For
the purposes of this paragraph a certificate of the prosecutor (or, in Scotland,
the Lord Advocate) as to the date on which such evidence as is referred to above
came to their notice is conclusive evidence.
Liability of
officers of bodies corporate etc
36 (1) If an
offence under this Schedule committed by a body corporate is shown—
(a) to
have been committed with the consent or the connivance of an officer of the body
corporate, or
(b) to
be attributable to any neglect on the part of any such officer,
the officer as well as the body corporate is guilty
of an offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
(2) If
an offence under this Schedule committed by a partnership is shown—
(a) to
have been committed with the consent or the connivance of a partner, or
(b) to
be attributable to any neglect on the part of a partner,
the partner as well as the partnership is guilty of
an offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
(3) If
an offence under this Schedule committed by an unincorporated association (other
than a partnership) is shown—
(a) to
have been committed with the consent or the connivance of an officer of the
association, or
(b) to
be attributable to any neglect on the part of any such officer,
the officer as well as the association is guilty of
an offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
(4) If
the affairs of a body corporate are managed by its members, sub-paragraph (1)
applies in relation to the acts and defaults of a member in connection with the
member’s functions of management as if the member were a director of the
body.
(5) In
this paragraph—
Proceedings against
unincorporated bodies
37 (1) Proceedings for an offence under this Schedule
alleged to have been committed by a partnership or an unincorporated association
must be brought in the name of the partnership or association (and not in that
of its members).
(2) In
proceedings for such an offence brought against a partnership or unincorporated
association—
(a) section 33 of the Criminal Justice Act 1925 (c.
86) (procedure on charge of offence against corporation) and Schedule 3 to the
Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43) (corporations) apply as they do in relation
to a body corporate;
(b) section 70 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland)
Act 1995 (c.
46) (proceedings against bodies corporate) applies as it does in relation to
a body corporate;
(c) section 18 of the Criminal Justice (Northern
Ireland) Act 1945 (c. 15 (N.I.)) (procedure on charge) and Schedule 4 to the
Magistrates' Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I. 26)) (corporations)
apply as they do in relation to a body corporate.
(3) Rules of court relating to the service of
documents have effect in relation to proceedings for an offence under this
Schedule as if the partnership or association were a body corporate.
(4) A
fine imposed on the partnership or association on its conviction of such an
offence is to be paid out of the funds of the partnership or association.
Part
8 Supplementary and
general
Report to
Parliament
38 (1) As soon
as reasonably practicable after the end of each calendar year, the Treasury
must—
(a) prepare a report about their exercise during that
year of their functions under this Schedule, and
(b) lay
a copy of the report before Parliament.
(2) Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply in relation to a
year if no direction under this Schedule is in force at any time in that
year.
Supervision by
supervisory authority
39 (1) A
supervisory authority must take appropriate measures to monitor persons
operating in the financial sector for whom it is the supervisory authority for
the purpose of securing compliance by those persons with the requirements of any
directions under this Schedule.
(2) For
the purposes of this Schedule—
(a) the
FSA is the supervisory authority for—
(i) credit institutions that are authorised
persons;
(ii) financial institutions (except money service
businesses that are not authorised persons and consumer credit financial
institutions);
(b) the
OFT is the supervisory authority for consumer credit financial
institutions;
(c) HMRC are the supervisory authority for money
service businesses that are not authorised persons;
(d) DETINI is the supervisory authority for credit
unions in Northern Ireland.
(3) Where under sub-paragraph (2) there is more than
one supervisory authority for a person, the authorities may agree that one of
them will act as the supervisory authority for that person for the purposes of
this Schedule.
(4) Where an agreement has been made under
sub-paragraph (3), the authority that has agreed to act as the supervisory
authority must—
(a) where directions under this Schedule have been
given to specified persons operating in the financial sector, notify those
persons;
(b) where such directions have been given to all
persons operating in the financial sector or to a description of such persons,
publish the agreement in such way as it considers appropriate.
(5) Where no agreement has been made under
sub-paragraph (3), the supervisory authorities for a person must co-operate in
the performance of their functions under this paragraph.
Assistance in
preparing guidance
40 The Treasury must provide such assistance as may
reasonably be required by a supervisory authority or other body drawing up
guidance that, when issued and published with the approval of the Treasury,
would be relevant guidance for the purposes of paragraph 25(3) (civil penalties)
and 30(3) (offences: failure to comply with requirement imposed by
direction).
Functions of
Financial Services Authority
41 (1) The
functions of the FSA under this Schedule shall be treated for the purposes of
Parts 1, 2 and 4 of Schedule 1 to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8)
(general provisions relating to the Authority) as if they were functions
conferred on the FSA under that Act.
(2) Any
penalty under paragraph 25 (civil penalties) received by the FSA is to be
applied towards expenses incurred by it in connection with its functions under
this Schedule or for any incidental purpose.
Notices
42 (1) A notice
under this Schedule may be given to a person—
(a) by
posting it to the person’s last known address, or
(b) where the person is a body corporate, partnership
or unincorporated association, by posting it to the registered or principal
office of the body, partnership or association.
(2) Where the Treasury are under a duty to give a
notice to a person but do not have an address for them, they must make
arrangements for the notice to be given to the person at the first available
opportunity.
Crown
application
43 (1) This
Schedule binds the Crown, subject as follows.
(2) No
contravention by the Crown of a provision of this Schedule makes the Crown
criminally liable.
(3) The
following courts may, on the application of a person appearing to the court to
have an interest, declare unlawful any act or omission of the Crown that
constitutes such a contravention—
(a) the
High Court in England and Wales;
(b) the
Court of Session;
(c) the
High Court in Northern Ireland.
(4) Nothing in this paragraph affects Her Majesty in
her private capacity.
This is to be construed as if section 38(3) of the
Crown Proceedings Act 1947 (c. 44) (meaning of Her Majesty in her private
capacity) were contained in this Schedule.
Meaning of “United
Kingdom person”
44 (1) In this
Schedule “United Kingdom person” means a United Kingdom national or a body
incorporated or constituted under the law of any part of the United
Kingdom.
(2) For
this purpose a United Kingdom national is an individual who is—
(a) a
British citizen, a British overseas territories citizen, a British National
(Overseas) or a British Overseas citizen;
(b) a
person who under the British Nationality Act 1981 (c. 61) is a British subject;
or
(c) a
British protected person within the meaning of that Act.
(3) Her
Majesty may by Order in Council extend the definition in sub-paragraph (1) so as
to apply to bodies incorporated or constituted under the law of any of the
Channel Islands, the Isle of Man or any British overseas territory.
Interpretation
45 (1) In this
Schedule—
-
“authorised person” means a person who
is authorised for the purposes of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8);
-
“business relationship” means a
business, professional or commercial relationship between a relevant person and
a customer, which is expected by the relevant person, at the time when contact
is established, to have an element of duration;
-
“conduct” includes acts and
omissions;
-
“consumer credit financial institution”
means a financial institution that under section 21 of the Consumer Credit Act
1974 (c. 39) requires a licence to carry on a consumer credit business, other
than—
(a)
a person covered by a group licence
issued by the Office of Fair Trading under section 22 of that Act,
(b)
a money service business, or
(c)
an authorised
person;
-
“country” includes territory;
-
“document” means information recorded
in any form;
-
“money service business” means an
undertaking which by way of business operates a currency exchange office,
transmits money (or any representations of monetary value) by any means or
cashes cheques which are made payable to customers;
-
“notice” means a notice in
writing.
(2) In
this Schedule any reference to an amount in one currency includes the equivalent
amount in any other currency.
(3) Unless otherwise defined, expressions used in
this Schedule and in—
(a) Directive 2005/60/EC of
the European Parliament and of the Council of 26th October 2005 on the
prevention of the use of the financial system for the purpose of money
laundering and terrorist financing, or
(b) Commission Directive 2006/70/EC of
1st August 2006 laying down implementing measures for that directive,
have the same meaning as in the relevant
directive.
Index of defined
expressions
46 In this Schedule the following expressions are
defined or otherwise explained by the provisions indicated—
authorised person |
paragraph 45(1) |
the banking consolidation
directive (in Part 2 of this Schedule) |
paragraph 7 |
biological weapon |
paragraph 2(6) |
business relationship |
paragraph 45(1) |
chemical weapon |
paragraph 2(5) |
conduct |
paragraph 45(1) |
consumer credit financial
institution |
paragraph 45(1) |
country |
paragraph 45(1) |
credit institution |
paragraph 5(1) |
customer due diligence
measures |
paragraph 10(3) |
designated person, in relation
to a direction |
paragraph 9(3) |
DETINI |
paragraph 18(1)(d) |
document |
paragraph 45(1) |
enforcement authority |
paragraph 18(1) |
enforcement officer (in Part 5
of this Schedule) |
paragraph 18(2) |
financial institution |
paragraph 5(2) |
the FSA |
paragraph 18(1)(a) |
HMRC |
paragraph 18(1)(b) |
the life assurance consolidation
directive (in Part 2 of this Schedule) |
paragraph 7 |
local enforcement officer |
paragraph 18(3) |
the markets in financial
instruments directive (in Part 2 of this Schedule) |
paragraph 7 |
money laundering |
paragraph 2(2) |
money service business |
paragraph 45(1) |
notice |
paragraph 45(1) |
nuclear weapon |
paragraph 2(3) |
the OFT |
paragraph 18(1)(c) |
persons operating in the
financial sector |
paragraph 4 |
radiological weapon |
paragraph 2(4) |
relevant person, in relation to
a direction |
paragraph 3(2) |
supervisory authority |
paragraph 39(2) |
terrorist financing |
paragraph 2(1) |
United Kingdom person |
paragraph 44 |
SCHEDULE 8 Offences relating to information
about members of armed forces etc: supplementary provisions
The following Schedule is inserted after Schedule 8 to the
Terrorism Act 2000
(c. 11)—
“SCHEDULE
8A Offence under section 58A: supplementary
provisions
Introduction
1 (1) This Schedule makes supplementary
provision relating to the offence in section 58A (eliciting, publishing or
communicating information about members of the armed forces etc).
(2) The purpose of this Schedule is to comply
with Directive 2000/31/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 8
June 2000 on certain legal aspects of information society services, in
particular electronic commerce, in the Internal Market (“the E-Commerce
Directive”).
Domestic service
providers: extension of liability
2 (1) This paragraph applies where a service
provider is established in the United Kingdom (a “domestic service
provider”).
(2) Section 58A applies to a domestic service
provider who—
(a) commits any of the acts specified in
subsection (1) of that section in an EEA state other than the United
Kingdom, and
(b) does so in the course of providing
information society services,
as it applies to a person who commits such an
act in the United Kingdom.
(3) In such a case—
(a) proceedings for the offence may be taken
at any place in the United Kingdom, and
(b) the offence may for all incidental
purposes be treated as having been committed at any such place.
Non-UK service
providers: restriction on proceedings
3 (1) This paragraph applies where a service
provider is established in an EEA state other than the United Kingdom (a “non-UK
service provider”).
(2) Proceedings for an offence under section
58A must not be brought against a non-UK service provider in respect of anything
done in the course of the provision of information society services unless the
following conditions are met.
(3) The conditions are—
(a) that the bringing of proceedings is
necessary for one of the following reasons—
(i) public policy,
(ii) public security, including the
safeguarding of national security and defence;
(b) that the proceedings are brought against
an information society service that prejudices the objectives referred to in
paragraph (a) or presents a serious and grave risk of prejudice to those
objectives;
(c) that the bringing of the proceedings is
proportionate to those objectives.
Exceptions for mere
conduits
4 (1) A service provider is not guilty of an
offence under section 58A in respect of anything done in the course of providing
so much of an information society service as consists in—
(a) the provision of access to a communication
network, or
(b) the transmission in a communication
network of information provided by a recipient of the service,
if the following condition is satisfied.
(2) The condition is that the service provider
does not—
(a) initiate the transmission,
(b) select the recipient of the transmission,
or
(c) select or modify the information contained
in the transmission.
(3) For the purposes of sub-paragraph
(1)—
(a) the provision of access to a communication
network, and
(b) the transmission of information in a
communication network,
includes the automatic, intermediate and
transient storage of the information transmitted so far as the storage is solely
for the purpose of carrying out the transmission in the network.
(4) Sub-paragraph (3) does not apply if the
information is stored for longer than is reasonably necessary for the
transmission.
Exception for
caching
5 (1) This paragraph applies where an
information society service consists in the transmission in a communication
network of information provided by a recipient of the service.
(2) The service provider is not guilty of an
offence under section 58A in respect of the automatic, intermediate and
temporary storage of information so provided, if—
(a) the storage of the information is solely
for the purpose of making more efficient the onward transmission of the
information to other recipients of the service at their request, and
(b) the following conditions are
satisfied.
(3) The first condition is that the service
provider does not modify the information.
(4) The second condition is that the service
provider complies with any conditions attached to having access to the
information.
(5) The third condition is that if the service
provider obtains actual knowledge that—
(a) the information at the initial source of
the transmission has been removed from the network,
(b) access to it has been disabled, or
(c) a court or administrative authority has
ordered the removal from the network of, or the disablement of access to, the
information,
the service provider expeditiously removes
the information or disables access to it.
Exception for
hosting
6 (1) A service provider is not guilty of an
offence under section 58A in respect of anything done in the course of providing
so much of an information society service as consists in the storage of
information provided by a recipient of the service, if the condition is
met.
(2) The condition is that—
(a) the service provider had no actual
knowledge when the information was provided that it contained offending
material, or
(b) on obtaining actual knowledge that the
information contained offending material, the service provider expeditiously
removed the information or disabled access to it.
(3) “Offending material” means information
about a person who is or has been—
(a) a member of Her Majesty’s forces,
(b) a member of any of the intelligence
services, or
(c) a constable,
which is of a kind likely to be useful to a
person committing or preparing an act of terrorism.
(4) This paragraph does not apply if the
recipient of the service is acting under the authority or control of the service
provider.
(5) In this paragraph “the intelligence
services” means the Security Service, the Secret Intelligence Service and
GCHQ (within
the meaning of section 3 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (c.
13)).
Interpretation
7 (1) In this Schedule—
-
“information society
services”—
(a)
has the meaning given in Article
2(a) of the E-Commerce Directive (which refers to Article 1(2) of Directive 98/34/EC of the
European Parliament and of the Council of 22 June 1998 laying down a procedure
for the provision of information in the field of technical standards and
regulations), and
(b)
is summarised in recital 17 of
the E-Commerce Directive as covering “any service normally provided for
remuneration, at a distance, by means of electronic equipment for the processing
(including digital compression) and storage of data, and at the individual
request of a recipient of a service”;
-
“recipient”, in relation to a
service, means any person who, for professional ends or otherwise, uses an
information society service, in particular for the purposes of seeking
information or making it accessible;
-
“service provider” means a
person providing an information society service.
(2) For the purposes of this Schedule whether
a service provider is established in the United Kingdom, or in some other EEA
state, shall be determined in accordance with the following provisions—
(a) a service provider is established in the
United Kingdom, or in a particular EEA state, if the service provider—
(i) effectively pursues an economic activity
using a fixed establishment in the United Kingdom, or that EEA state, for an
indefinite period, and
(ii) is a national of an EEA state or a company
or firm mentioned in Article 48 of the EEC Treaty;
(b) the presence or use in a particular place
of equipment or other technical means of providing an information society
service does not, of itself, constitute the establishment of a service
provider;
(c) where it cannot be determined from which
of a number of establishments a given information society service is provided,
that service is to be regarded as provided from the establishment at the centre
of the service provider’s activities relating to that service.”.
Expand
All Explanatory Notes (ENs)
Section 99
SCHEDULE 9 Repeals and revocations
Part
1 Retention and use of
fingerprints and samples
Short title and
chapter |
Extent of
repeal |
Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) |
In Schedule 8, paragraph
14(3). |
Part
2 Disclosure of
information and the intelligence services
Title and number |
Extent of repeal or
revocation |
Anti-terrorism, Crime and
Security Act 2001
(c. 24) |
Section 19(2)(a). |
Representation of the People
(England and Wales) Regulations 2001 (S.I. 2001/341) |
Regulation 45E(3) and (4).
In Regulation 109—
(a)
paragraph (1)(g) to (i);
(b)
in paragraph (4)(a), the words
preceding paragraph (i);
(c)
paragraph (4)(b) and the word “and”
immediately preceding it.
In Regulation 115(2), “45E(3),”.
|
Representation of the People
(Scotland) Regulations 2001 (S.I. 2001/497) |
Regulation 45D(3) and (4).
In Regulation 108—
(a)
paragraph (1)(g) to (i);
(b)
in paragraph (4)(a), the words
preceding paragraph (i);
(c)
paragraph (4)(b) and the word “and”
immediately preceding it.
In Regulation 115(2), “45D(3),”.
|
Immigration, Asylum and
Nationality Act 2006 (c. 13) |
Section 38. |
Statistics and Registration
Service Act 2007
(c. 18) |
Section 39(4)(g).
In section 67, the definition of “Intelligence
Service”.
|
Part
3 Forfeiture
Short title and
chapter |
Extent of
repeal |
Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) |
Section 54(7) to (9).
Section 58(5) to (7).
|
Part
4 Financial restrictions
proceedings
Title and number |
Extent of
revocation |
These revocations do not
affect an application made before the commencement of section
63. |
Terrorism (United Nations
Measures) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/3365) |
Article 4(7) and (8). |
Al-Qa'ida and Taliban (United
Nations Measures) Order 2002 (S.I. 2002/111) |
Article 8(7) and (8). |
Terrorism (United Nations
Measures) Order 2006 (S.I. 2006/2657) |
Article 5(4) and (5). |
Al-Qaida and Taliban (United
Nations Measures) Order 2006 (S.I. 2006/2952) |
Article 5(4) and
(5). |
Part
5 Control orders
Short title and
chapter |
Extent of
repeal |
Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 (c. 2) |
In section 3—
(a)
subsection (1)(c);
(b)
in subsection (7) the words “within 7
days of the court’s giving permission or (as the case may be) making its
determination on the reference”.
Section 8(8).
In the Schedule, in paragraph 5(1)(a) the words “, at any time
after a control order has been made,”.
|
Part
6 Pre-charge
detention
Short title and
Chapter |
Extent of
repeal |
Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) |
In Schedule 8, in paragraph
29(4)(a) and (c), the words “after consulting the Lord
Chancellor”. |
|